Did Mary have other children?

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At the risk of seeming flippant – and I certainly don’t intend to be – I would answer with another question, “does it really matter?” What matters, it seems to me, is that her “first-born” child, Jesus, is our Lord and Savior. The existence – or nonexistence – of siblings has nothing to do with who Jesus was and is nor would it change Mary’s role as the model of faith and obedience.

I think I’ll take my cue from Luther and affirm that Mary had no other children and that those who were referred to as brothers and sisters were really cousins.
I think the other element of this is Truth. Why does it matter? Because that is part of the divine deposit of faith we have received from the Apostles. If we decide any part of it is no longer relevant, and stop guarding it, how are we going to know when we drop out something that turns out to be critical?

The Apostles instructed us to hold fast to all they delivered to us, and it is always wise to follow the Apostolic instructions completely.
 
Ok guanophore, I got ya and I too believe Jesus literally when he promised He would send His HS to lead us into Truth.

Here is my source for the quote:
“The Language of the Gospel”
by Thomas S. McCall, Th.D.
Dr. Thomas McCall, the Senior Theologian of our ministry, has written many articles for the Levitt Letter. He holds a Th.M. in Old Testament studies and a Th.D. in Semitic languages and Old Testament.

Here is the fact: There is not a single copy of Mathew in Aramaic. Not one.
That is not to say that your theory is wrong, but it goes against concensus teaching, and there is nothing but ‘circumstantial’ evidence for it.
I tend to agree with you on this however.
I just am not sure what difference that makes. The words in Aramaic and Greek are way more specific than Hebrew and you cannot ‘mistake’ cousin, relative etc. for brother and sister in these languages.

Also, I did not deny that Greek was commonly spoken, what I said was Greek was also the language of the learned, more so than aramaic. Hence historians in Rome like Josephus used Greek. Josephus refered to certain individuals as ‘brothers’ of Jesus in Greek.

God bless
WRONG.
Apparently, you don’t know your history.

Most scholars agree that Matthew’s Gospel was originally written in Aramaic and translated into Greek.

There are many transliterations that support this such as St. Paul’s rendering of St. Peter’s name to “Cephas”. Jesus changed St. Peter’s name to the Aramaic “Kepha” In Matt. 16:18.
 
At the risk of seeming flippant – and I certainly don’t intend to be – I would answer with another question, “does it really matter?” What matters, it seems to me, is that her “first-born” child, Jesus, is our Lord and Savior. The existence – or nonexistence – of siblings has nothing to do with who Jesus was and is nor would it change Mary’s role as the model of faith and obedience.

I think I’ll take my cue from Luther and affirm that Mary had no other children and that those who were referred to as brothers and sisters were really cousins.
One reason is that Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant.

The first Ark carried within it the symbols of the word of God and the power therein. Mary, the Ark of the New Covenant, actually carried God within her.

The Ark of the Old Covenant could not be touched by penalty of death 2 Sam. 7 for it was the dwelling place of God and could not be defiled.

Mary, having been impregnated by the Holy Spirit was not to be defiled. New Testament fulfillments of Old Testament types are always more glorious.

Mary was declared Theotokos (God-bearer) at the Council of Ephesus in 431. This was done more to define the nature of Christ, but also pointed to the reality of Mary’s role.
 
Ibelieve the question is DID MARY HAVE OTHER CHILDREN, and tha answer is NO’

. Mt 13:55-56 and MK 6:3 say, “Is this not the carpenter, the Son of Mary, the ‘brother’ of James, and Joseph, and of Jude and Simon? And are not His ‘sisters’ here with us?”

. At first it looks like Jesus had brothers and sisters. These are the main two verses that some say ‘prove’ He did. Lets look at the definitions.

. From four different dictionaries, the word ‘brother’ means, sons of the same parents, OR, friend, ally, kinsman, fellow man, member of the same clan, fellow member of a Church etc. Which definition fits the verses?

Compare Mt 10:2-4, Mk 15:40, Jn 19:25, and Acts 1:13 and you will find that James, Joseph, and Jude were sons of Cleophas (Alphaeus) and ‘the other Mary’, not Mary the Mother of GOD. Simon was the ‘Canaanite’ of Mk 3:18, and the ‘Zealot’.

. NONE of the four ‘brothers’ were sons of Mary, the Mother of GOD. They were ‘fellow men’. This makes the word ‘brother’ a non-argument. Mt 12:50 .
Hope this will and does answer the question.“Did Mary have other children” andser NO
 
The Greek word used in Matthew is Heos hou which most definitely can imply a change in the previous condition.
He stayed there until the death of Herod, that what the Lord had said through the prophet might be fulfilled: “Out of Egypt I called my son.”
Matthew 2, 15

When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.
Hosea 11, 1


Matthew is strictly concerned with the period of time before Herod’s death, when Mary and Joseph were compelled to flee to Egypt to protect the infant Jesus from the wrath of the king until his demise, to confirm the fulfillment of a Messianic prophecy. This prophecy can only be fulfilled by the Holy Family’s exile into Egypt which precedes Herod’s death. The evangelist is assuring the Jews that Jesus is the foretold Messiah.

He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and named him Jesus.
Matthew 1, 25

Therefore the Lord himself will give you this sign:
* the virgin** shall be with child, and bear a son, and shall call him Emmanuel.*
Isaiah 7, 14

Again, Matthew is declaring to the Jews that Isaiah’s prophecy is fulfilled in the virgin birth of Jesus, who is the Messiah, the Son of the living God (Mt 16:16). He is not of paternal lineage as expected to be by the Jews, but born of the Virgin Mary. Just as the evangelist confirms Mary and Joseph escaped to Egypt with the infant Jesus before Herod’s death that the prophecy may be fulfilled, so too he is assuring the Jews that Mary and Joseph had no relations before the birth of Jesus in fulfillment of the prophecy. He is strictly concerned with the time preceding the expected prophetic event. Obviously what may have occurred after the fulfillment has no bearing on the prophecy. The fulfillment of a prophecy rests on what happens before the expected event. And Matthew is purely concerned with its fulfillment.
If we look at another example in scripture we find the same words being use in Acts 23:12
When it was day, the Jews made a plot and bound themselves by an oath neither to eat nor drink till they had killed Paul. The word used for till is heos hou which is the same word Matthew uses in 1:25. By your supposition the Jews would never have eaten even after killing Paul.
Like Matthew, Luke is strictly concerned with the period of time before a pending event. He is giving no thought to what could happen in the wake of the event. If a teacher tells his students: “I have to leave the classroom for a few minutes, so please do your work quietly until I return,” (The students worked quietly until heos hou] the teacher returned.) he does not expect them to become raucous after he returns. Nor is he concerned with what could follow, and necessarily doesn’t have to, after he does. The teacher would certainly feel sure that his pupils would continue to work quietly, as Matthew was aware that Mary remained a virgin after the birth of Jesus, and as Luke would assume the Jews would probably eat something after killing Paul. Meanwhile, the teacher’s students wouldn’t necessarily have to remain quiet; nor would Mary and Joseph necessarily have to have marital relations or remain continent after the birth of Jesus. Outside the Apostolic Tradition and severed from the historic Christian faith, one can only presume through a manipulation of the conjunction’s true function that Matthew knew Mary had other children.
In Matthew 1:18 we read: When his mother Mary had been betrothed [6] to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit. The word used for come together is synerchomai which means conjugal cohabitation. Matthew fully expected Mary and Joseph to have marital relations and let’s his Jewish readers know that the child Mary was carrying was not Joseph’s because they had not yet come together. In the Jewish culture this was a serious offense given that they had entered a marriage contract.
Actually, you believe the Greek word synerchomai contextually presupposes that Mary and Joseph had conjugal relations after the birth of Jesus. I’m afraid you base your presupposition on a preconceived notion of yours. The word literally means “to come with”, and on the thirty other occasions in the New Testament it is used to mean “to meet” or “to convene”. Matthew is telling us that Mary “was found with child” before she “lived together” with Joseph.

Betrothal was the first stage of their marriage, constituting a man and woman as husband and wife. At this point, infidelity on Mary’s part would have been an act of adultery. Betrothal was followed a few months later by the husband’s taking his wife into his home, at which time the conventional married life would begin. Normally, Jewish couples would have children from this point on, but they didn’t necessarily have to for a valid marriage to be in effect. Some women were found to be barren, like Elizabeth, while rare Jewish couples preferred to have a continent marriage. Thus Matthew is simply telling us that Mary was found to be with child before she came to live with Joseph under his roof.

PAX :harp:
 
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