Did Mary "truly" consent?

[John_oxios]

This is one of those “I got into a debate on FB” threads…

Anyway, I’m currently embroiled in a discussion over whether or not Mary consented to become the mother of God. I’m of the mind she did. The angel Gabe told her what would happen, giving her a moment to say no, she didn’t, she said yes. The Protestant I"m discussing this with, cited some Greek words that implied a forced pregnancy.

Now, I’m not really interested in whether I"m right, but he raised a few points here. So either I’m not well versed enough to answer efficiently, he’s being obtuse, or he’s coming at scripture from a different view.

I am thinking that they might not be correct, as he keeps sidestepping issues and talking about Pharaoh and Elizabeth being barren. They seem to have a misunderstanding of “unplanned pregnancy” vs “forced pregnancy”.

Any tips would be appreciated? I’m quite intrigued by this now, actually.

orums.catholic.com/showthread.php?p=10139782#post10139782
Fr. Charles Grondin
Apologist

In Luke 1:28 the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally “full of grace” but its root word is the Greek verb “to give grace” (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, thus it means that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her, but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, “Hail Mary you are kecharitomene,” but rather, “Hail kecharitomene.” Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity

 

[Rosinante]

May I just say there is argument regarding Luther as to his “earlier” writings compared to the “later” writings. Luther changed views on many issues. Protestants like to point out that Catholics will pull the Luther card when it agrees with their point, and do a 180 on him with we disagree on other points. Also, Lutherans, separate from other Christian denominations don’t have as much a an issue with the BVM. They do claim there is a separate “Lutheran” rosary that is used that does not use the phrase “pray for us sinners, now and at the hour of our death”, as there is an issue with praying to the dead or the undead. Apparently that phrase was added after the death of Luther. In any case, Protestants to not regard everything Luther said as “infallible”, he was just another sinner with his own opinions. They believe in their own personal revelations and interpretation of scripture as Spirit inspired truth. Best to not put too much emphasis on Luther, IMO.

I get what your saying–but I wasn’t suggesting using luther as an authority–rather taking the founder of protestantism–a guy who a pro. (presumably) respects–and showing how far a field the movement has gone, particulary wrt to Mariology.