Did Moses exist historically?

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Moses ([/ˈmoʊzɪz, -zɪs/][[2]][Note 1] was a prophet according to the teachings of the Abrahamic religions; however, scholarly consensus sees Moses as a legendary figure and not a historical person.[3]
Scholars are broadly agreed that the exodus story was composed in the 5th century BCE.[5] The traditions behind it can be traced in the writings of the 8th-century BCE prophets,[6][7] but it has no historical basis.[8] Instead, archaeology suggests a native Canaanite origin for ancient Israel.[9]


So did Moses exist and did the Exodus happen?
 
Jesus mentioned Moses. He also talked with Moses during the Transfiguration. That is good enough for me. Jesus is a better source than any scholar 🤔
 
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I’m not at this time set against the proportion of events being inflated to a limited degree as part of the cultural narrative, but Moses was certainly a historical figure, and necessarily so in our faith. I also think claims that a 1,500 BCE person was only a legendary fiction are quite bold.
 
There have been many good and thorough discussions of this topic in the past…I suggest searching the forum for them.
 
I remember hearing about how historians say that one of the reasons why Jewish Torah is historically sound at the time of the Exodus was because it included all of the failures of the Jewish people. Rulers, like Pharaoh, would never write about their defeats, so their history can’t be taken seriously.
 
I know plenty of people who want a scholarly consensus that Jesus didn’t exist either. They are fans of nonpersons in general, if you catch my drift.
 
Imagine that!
Why wouldn’t the scholars argue instead, that Abraham did not exist and was an invention.
Historically he is even farther removed in time from Moses and happens to be the Father of the 3 largest religions on the planet.
Perhaps the prospect of being singled with jihad for insulting the father of Islam tempers their foolishness.
St. Paul calls them out loud and clear in the Letter to the Romans:
1:21For although they had known God, they did not glorify God, nor give thanks. Instead, they became weakened in their thoughts, and their foolish heart was obscured.
1:22 For, while proclaiming themselves to be wise, they became foolish.
 
It seems that these “historians” do not consider the Bible as a credible source at all. Since it is filled with the failures of the people of Israel.
God likes to manifest Himself when there can be no doubt that the outcome cannot be attributed to human intervention. If one reads the Bible.
 
So did Moses exist and did the Exodus happen?
In spite of what many scholars say, Moses remains as the original human source of the Pentateuch, as the Pentateuch itself states (Ex 17:14; 24:4–7; 34:27; Lev 6:8-9; Num 33:2; Deut 31:9, 22, 24). Other books of the Old Testament kept the tradition of assigning the authorship of the Pentateuch to Moses (Jos 1:7–8; 8:31–34; 23:6; Jgs 3:4; 3 Kgs 2:3; 4 Kgs 14:6; 21:8; 23:5; 2 Par 25:4;34:14; 1 Esd 6:18; 2 Esd 8:1; 13:1; Dan 9:11–13). In the gospels our Lord Jesus Himself explicitly confirmed the Mosaic origin of the Laws (Matt 8:4; 19:7–8; 22:24; Mark 7:10; 10:3; 12:26; Luke 24:44; John 1:17; 5:46–47; 7:19-23). And in other places in the New Testament besides the gospels, we read the same affirmation of Moses’ authorship (Acts 6:14; 13:38; 15:5; Rom 10:5; 1 Cor 9:9; 2 Cor 3:15; Heb 10:28).
 
These responses to the question seem thorough:

http://christianthinktank.com/aec2.html
http://christianthinktank.com/qmoses1.html

Apologies if they’ve been posted before, I’m a new user.
 
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