D
Baptism is not mentioned as a prerequisite to the priesthood. Where as Jesus is the only one who can mediate our salvation. It is by His Holy blood that satisfies the requirements of the Father. His righteousness is the only one equal to the Father. Jesus’’ imputed righteousness makes us perfect to the Father. By virtue of His deity He is the only capable of mediating the new covenant. Only God can save ( Jesus is the OT definition of YHWH ben YHWH )By virtue of our baptism, we are a holy priesthood, called to offer spiritual sacrifices to God in and through Christ, the principal Mediator who has made our participation in his mediation possible in accordance with the will of the Father (1Pet 2:5). Priests intercede for one another in and through Christ before God. When Paul wrote There is one mediator between God and man (1 Tim 2:5), he used the Greek word heis (one) with the intention of assuring us that Christ is the one who has paid a ransom for us all in strict justice (v.6) thereby reconciling the world with God. If the apostle had intended to teach us that Christ is the “only” mediator, then he would have used the Greek word monos. And he certainly wouldn’t have instructed us to make intercession for each other by our prayers and supplications to God. (1 Tim 2:1-2). Of course, Jesus doesn’t need our help, but God desires that we participate in his work of salvation to glorify the Son as his true disciples. The Blessed Virgin Mary is our model in the order of grace.
PAX :heaven:
I can understand your emotion, but you have not understood my argument. An atheist denies all of the Truth; you deny a portion of it. Therefore, there is some degree of similarity.
My challenge is similar to yours. You must convince an atheist of the truth that the Bible is the inspired Word of God. I must convince you that Mary remained ever-virgin.
I can do the latter by first convincing you that the Church is infallible. You cannot do the former without that same infallible Church.
Justy, if you want to compare apples with apples stick with the use of ‘until’ in the NT. There are some posts on this thread (I think it was this thread) that shows verses that help to understand Matthew 1:25.Look at Gen 6,7and8 to see what the word until telling you
It matters because “Mary ever Virgin” factors into the greater question: Who is Jesus?Thank you.
- I know of NO denomination - Protestant or otherwise - that has a dogma of “Mary Had Lotsa Kids.” Yes, I think there are Protestants who have an opinion that she DID have other children - but such is simply their opinions. Some Protestants believe that Obama is a great president, too - they are entitled to their opinions.
- I know of nothing in Scripture or from the earliest church that says anything dogmatic on this. There’s nothing I know of that clearly states, “Jesus was an only child!” and nothing that says, “MARY had _____ children in addition to Jesus.” Thus, MY reply would be that we simply don’t know.
- I’m hard pressed to think of anything less relevant and more moot. To be blunt: who cares? What color hair did She have? How tall was She? Was She a good cook? How old was She when Jesus was born? I guess we can theorize about all this, but I’m left wondering why…
Pax
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- Josiah
Infallible refers to the transmission of the true faith. Impeccable to its actions in history. The latter is clearly not the case; the former is, historically speaking, arguable. In another sense, however, it cannot be denied that it is still around.[SIGN]Randy’s post: “So, I have demonstrated from a historical perspective why the Catholic Church is infallible.”[/SIGN]
Funny how history has proven how fallible the CC as is all churches.
How do you figure?It matters because “Mary ever Virgin” factors into the greater question: Who is Jesus?
Your objections are noted.The fact of the matter is that the only thing anyone of us must be convinced of is that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of the Living God, the One Who died in our place. Then we must trust Him to save our lost soul and follow Him.
Whether Mary remained a virgin or not plays NO part in our salvation. Believing that the Bread and Wine actually turn into the Body and Blood of Jesus plays NO part in our salvation. Believing the CC is infallible or not plays NO part in our salvation.
There is a huge difference betwee an atheist and Kev. To say otherwise is foolishness.
Does any one read what the Bible has to in Matt 12,26=27 Not the God of the deadd but the God of the living, We are all alive in ChristYour premise is that we should ask those who have died and are in heaven to pray for us. There is no direct or indirect indication that we should petition them. Our only heavenly directed petition is to the Lord only.
Rom 15:30; 1 Tim 2: 1-3; 1 Cor 3:9; Phil 1;19; 1 Peter 2:5; James 5:16; Jude 23. These are directing us here on earth to pray for those around us. We are to petition the the Lord on behalf of the brethren and those in authority. We are to make our needs known to Jesus in heaven.
Hi Bill you ment to say Mk 12:26-27 Very true God is the God of the living and not the dead. But how does this relate to our discussion about Marys other children?Does any one read what the Bible has to in Matt 12,26=27 Not the God of the deadd but the God of the living, We are all alive in Christ
this is what you said: "**Just like those who believe in God and not just a religion.I’m confused about, “so I’ve replaced Jesus with his flock.”
You said that is was worded wrong or something to that affect. So all is cleared up.this is what you said: "**Just like those who believe in God and not just a religion.
Read your Bible. It does not say you need to follow a church or religion for a sure path to heaven. I am the way the truth and the life, he who believes in me will not parish but have eternal life. So who is this way truth and life? Its not the CC its Christ. So ya your wrong."**
So you think I believe in my religion, or Church (flock) – as opposed to believing in God?
Or what did you really mean ?
I have went through all my posts and I don’t see where I mentioned her “sexual nature.”Rev,
Do you think it is important to reveal Mary’s “sexual nature” for some particular reason ? Do you think God needed this message to be clear for some reason ?
Or
Do you want to prove the Catholic Church fallible, so as to put all Christianity on an “equal playing field” ?
DoKimas, What prof do you have of this statment[SIGN]Randy’s post: “So, I have demonstrated from a historical perspective why the Catholic Church is infallible.”[/SIGN]
Funny how history has proven how fallible the CC as is all churches.
Our heavenly Father already knows our spiritual and temporal needs before we even turn to him. So we cannot make known to him what he already knows. Scripture contains figurative language. But God wills that we acknowledge our needs and address them through his Son by the actual grace we receive to inspire us to pray. Another route is to make our needs “known” to our Lord by asking others to pray for us.Your premise is that we should ask those who have died and are in heaven to pray for us. There is no direct or indirect indication that we should petition them. Our only heavenly directed petition is to the Lord only.
Rom 15:30; 1 Tim 2: 1-3; 1 Cor 3:9; Phil 1;19; 1 Peter 2:5; James 5:16; Jude 23. These are directing us here on earth to pray for those around us. We are to petition the the Lord on behalf of the brethren and those in authority. We are to make our needs known to Jesus in heaven.
I agree with you wholeheartedly… You see Rev, I love the Protestants… Because, I know the Catholic Faith is hard to follow… And if it weren’t for the Protestants, I honestly believe that the ‘Catholic Church on Earth’ (before the 2nd coming) would have been destroyed long ago.Shouldn’t we all be equal in God’s work and we shouldn’t be in competition over God’s work. I don’t think he would like that too much, do you?

:byzsoc:

