K
K_C
Guest
This verse was read at Masses last Friday and raised again a question that has often bothered me about the return of Christ:
"Amen, I say to you, you will not finish the towns of Israel before the Son of Man comes." Matthew 23
(This followed instructions Our Lord was giving to His apostles about going out to proclaim the gospel.)
I have noticed several other incidences where Jesus gives His followers the distinct impression that His return to the earth would be within their lifetimes (“before this generation passes away…”). I have heard a few tortured explanations for this apparent misinformation, such as the word “generation” means “all mankind” (?)or “a thousand years is as a day to God” (so it’s really only been two DAYs since He left, not 2000 years). However, the quotation above makes it VERY CLEAR that Jesus is saying that He will return BEFORE the apostles “finish the towns of Israel” - that is, before they finished spreading the gospel throughout Israel.
Now we know that Christ has a dual nature: true God and true Man. In other instances, He told His followers that “only the Father knows” the answer to some question they posed.
My question then is: Did Jesus KNOW when He would return to earth, or did He not? If not, is this because, in His human nature (which is, of course, limited as ours - except for sin) this fact (and perhaps others as well) was somehow hidden from His consciousness - reserved only for the knowledge of the Father, as He infers?
If that is the case, however, how can we assert that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are truly EQUAL. God is omniscient…He knows ALL THINGS by His very nature. So if the Son does NOT know any particular fact - because of his limited human nature - then wouldn’t that necessarily mean that He is NOT omniscient? - at least not in His human nature? I have a hard time trying to imagine how “one half” of Jesus did not know what the “other half” was thinking, but this seems to be the case!
In addition, since Jesus is THE TRUTH, how could He deliberately mislead the apostles (or so it seems) to believe that His return would happen before they “finish(ed) the towns of Israel”? (And I think that the meaning of that sentence is quite clear, so let’s try to avoid semantics!) If He was merely trying to increase their fervor for the gospel (and self-sacrifice) in this way, that is understandable. However, the deception of the apostles remains a logical problem seems to be a contradiction of the divine nature of Christ.
Anyone able to shed some light via Church teaching?
"Amen, I say to you, you will not finish the towns of Israel before the Son of Man comes." Matthew 23
(This followed instructions Our Lord was giving to His apostles about going out to proclaim the gospel.)
I have noticed several other incidences where Jesus gives His followers the distinct impression that His return to the earth would be within their lifetimes (“before this generation passes away…”). I have heard a few tortured explanations for this apparent misinformation, such as the word “generation” means “all mankind” (?)or “a thousand years is as a day to God” (so it’s really only been two DAYs since He left, not 2000 years). However, the quotation above makes it VERY CLEAR that Jesus is saying that He will return BEFORE the apostles “finish the towns of Israel” - that is, before they finished spreading the gospel throughout Israel.
Now we know that Christ has a dual nature: true God and true Man. In other instances, He told His followers that “only the Father knows” the answer to some question they posed.
My question then is: Did Jesus KNOW when He would return to earth, or did He not? If not, is this because, in His human nature (which is, of course, limited as ours - except for sin) this fact (and perhaps others as well) was somehow hidden from His consciousness - reserved only for the knowledge of the Father, as He infers?
If that is the case, however, how can we assert that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are truly EQUAL. God is omniscient…He knows ALL THINGS by His very nature. So if the Son does NOT know any particular fact - because of his limited human nature - then wouldn’t that necessarily mean that He is NOT omniscient? - at least not in His human nature? I have a hard time trying to imagine how “one half” of Jesus did not know what the “other half” was thinking, but this seems to be the case!
In addition, since Jesus is THE TRUTH, how could He deliberately mislead the apostles (or so it seems) to believe that His return would happen before they “finish(ed) the towns of Israel”? (And I think that the meaning of that sentence is quite clear, so let’s try to avoid semantics!) If He was merely trying to increase their fervor for the gospel (and self-sacrifice) in this way, that is understandable. However, the deception of the apostles remains a logical problem seems to be a contradiction of the divine nature of Christ.
Anyone able to shed some light via Church teaching?