Did original sin change human nature?

  • Thread starter Thread starter ClemtheCatholic
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Yes, as long as we understand “sin nature” to simply mean the natural state we’re left in, or fall to, when God effectively recedes from being the God of our lives. IOW, the reason man sins is because he lacks the integrity necessary to control himself, to keep his normal appetites in harmony with and controlled by reason. And this is due to his having “forfeited” the “preternatural” and supernatural gifts at the fall. Man fell from grace, and without grace, without God, he can neither save himself nor maintain control over himself. Our obligation is to accept reconciliation with God so that relationship is restored (He becomes the God of man again as per Jer 31), and this relationship involves the proper subjugation/obedience of creature to Creator.
Yes, exactly, I agree. 👍🙂
Are you sure about this? Suppose that Adam and Eve hadn’t commited the original sin, but Cain did. Would Cain and his descendents be the only ones with original sin? Maybe Cain’s sin would affect the whole human race, and not just his descendents. Or perhaps Adam and Eve were the only ones who could have transmitted original sin to future generations, in which case Cain’s sin would have no affect on even his own descendents.
That’s a good point I’ve often wondered. What if Adam & Eve had not sinned but had children and some of their children sinned and some didn’t? My theory is that the devil was only allowed to test mankind one time and if they resist him then he has to flee and leave all of humanity alone. So I think if Adam & Even had resisted the devil in the beginning, then the devil would have to leave mankind alone because that act of resisting the devil might have been transferred to all humanity through them the way the sin nature was. So I think all Adam & Eve had to do was resist that one time and the devil would not have been able to tempt any of their children and would have to leave humanity alone. I might be wrong, that’s just my theory. 🙂 Because it would be impossible to expect not one person throughout human history would ever give in to temptation and having some with sin nature and some without would have caused confusion. So I think resisting that one time by Adam & Eve would have been all it took.
 
Yes, exactly, I agree. 👍🙂

That’s a good point I’ve often wondered. What if Adam & Eve had not sinned but had children and some of their children sinned and some didn’t? My theory is that the devil was only allowed to test mankind one time and if they resist him then he has to flee and leave all of humanity alone. So I think if Adam & Even had resisted the devil in the beginning, then the devil would have to leave mankind alone because that act of resisting the devil might have been transferred to all humanity through them the way the sin nature was. So I think all Adam & Eve had to do was resist that one time and the devil would not have been able to tempt any of their children and would have to leave humanity alone. I might be wrong, that’s just my theory. 🙂 Because it would be impossible to expect not one person throughout human history would ever give in to temptation and having some with sin nature and some without would have caused confusion. So I think resisting that one time by Adam & Eve would have been all it took.
That makes sense, but even without the devil, we still have the possibility of sinning.
 
Are you sure about this? Suppose that Adam and Eve hadn’t commited the original sin, but Cain did. Would Cain and his descendents be the only ones with original sin? Maybe Cain’s sin would affect the whole human race, and not just his descendents. Or perhaps Adam and Eve were the only ones who could have transmitted original sin to future generations, in which case Cain’s sin would have no affect on even his own descendents.
This post is in reply to the question I put in bold. Are you sure about this? found in post 20. I realize that post 20 is creating another scenario to add to the many creative ones based on individual interpretations of the first three chapter of Genesis. Normally, I would think a bit about ignoring it. 🙂 However, the very reasonable question is directed to myself and I hope my answer is reasonable in kind.

I am only a cranky (feminine of snarky) granny who believes in the teachings of the Catholic Church. You may certainly check the Church’s Original Sin teachings which flow from Divine Revelation. Actually, the Catholic teachings about Original Sin are eye-opening. But I warn you, reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church, Second Edition takes a lot of
down-to-earth effort. That book is not a page turner.

Once a person gets the hang of the logic regarding the beginning of human history, one can figure out that original refers to the original, meaning the first, human person (Adam) who had an unique relationship with his Creator. Thus, the first horribly serious sin of breaking this unique relationship between Creator and creature would be called original because of the importance of Adam being the original, that is first, person in human history.

There is more to that Original Sin. It involved humanity and divinity. St. Paul explains the purpose or mission of Jesus Christ, True Man (humanity) and True God (divinity)
in Romans 5: 12-21.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top