Did OT just have sanctifying grace?

[spauline]

i need to know this to forumalate my apocalyptic theory.

How could Noah, Abraham, and Moses done what they did without actual grace and the life of sanctifying grace?

If they had sanctifying grace, why did they have to wait in limbo until Christ’s Resurrection?

Or were they only naturally good?

 

[spauline]

doesn’t St. Paul imply in Romans that Abraham had the state of grace?

 

[passus]

It is not beyond popular theological understanding to assert that the Old Testament patriarchs, and even individuals in the New Testament like Saint John the Baptist, received grace from God in nature tantamount that which we receive in the Church’s Baptism. He is not bound by the sacraments, remember.

 

[spauline]

how could Scripture say that David had a heart that pleased God if David was merely naturally good?

For natural goodness alone cannot please God.

???

Therefore, the just of the OT must have had sanctifying grace.

 

[spauline]

It is not beyond popular theological understanding to assert that the Old Testament patriarchs, and even individuals in the New Testament like Saint John the Baptist, received grace from God in nature tantamount that which we receive in the Church’s Baptism. He is not bound by the sacraments, remember.

right, that is what i thought. I wasn’t questioning it, but only looking for recognition of this fact, or at least that it is quite plausible or at least possible that they had sanctifying grace

 

[NotWorthy]

how could Scripture say that David had a heart that pleased God if David was merely naturally good?

For natural goodness alone cannot please God.

???

Therefore, the just of the OT must have had sanctifying grace.

All things are possible with God.

The only difference is that there was not a normal means of receiving this Grace.

 

[spauline]

All things are possible with God.

The only difference is that there was not a normal means of receiving this Grace.

right, that is what i was hoping. The same as the principle of implicit desire for Baptism.

 

[Luke65]

I think the correct the way to understand it is that they were justified, not sanctified. Although I assume Enoch and Elijah (and Moses?) were sanctified, but apparently not allowed to see the Beatific Vision until Christ died on the Cross. Because He said: “No one has seen the Father, except the One who is from God.” (John 6:46)

P.S. Excellent work on the End Times, spauline!

 

[spauline]

I think the correct the way to understand it is that they were justified, not sanctified. Although I assume Enoch and Elijah (and Moses?) were sanctified, but apparently not allowed to see the Beatific Vision until Christ died on the Cross. Because He said: “No one has seen the Father, except the One who is from God.” (John 6:46)

P.S. Excellent work on the End Times, spauline!

thanks, Luke!