V
Vesbu
Guest
Its most likely so. If you read “Epistle of James” he refered to jesus as Lord. or Kyrios in greek, well Kurios with a small K to be exact. But Jesus was always portrayed as small compared to the father in heaven, but because of his obedience he was rewarded for it.
The reason is that Jews didnt refer the Yahweh because of ten commandments “Do not take your lord god’s name in vain” so they used Adonai hebrew or Kyrios greek for their Lord Yahweh. So its unlikely that James would use this on Jesus if he thought he was just a mere prophet, considering the previous prophets were never raised in high esteem in terms of being divine. Also even according to scholars it seems to be agreed that James the Brother of Jesus was the writer of this letter.
Now the question is if one believes “Son of Man” means Jesus as God. Now Bart Ehrman has been inclinde to not believe so, which i disagree with. And to prove it, Eusebius an early church father in 3rd century i think. Basically he didnt believe Jesus was divine, or well he had sympathetic points towards arianism which held the view that Jesus was a man more or less, he more or less agreed when the church itself came to that final conclusion but still had soft spot for arianism. And yet, in his writings he quotes Jospehus which says in the writings of James which says “Jesus, the son of man”… So it would be unlikely for Eusebius to be bias since he didnt really have the motive to be so.
The only question sceptics can do now is to believe the Daniel means something else, like Son of man enters, and the kingdom will be an everlasting kingdom. Whether this means Yahweh or Son of Man together?. Which i would incline the evidence points too.
The reason is that Jews didnt refer the Yahweh because of ten commandments “Do not take your lord god’s name in vain” so they used Adonai hebrew or Kyrios greek for their Lord Yahweh. So its unlikely that James would use this on Jesus if he thought he was just a mere prophet, considering the previous prophets were never raised in high esteem in terms of being divine. Also even according to scholars it seems to be agreed that James the Brother of Jesus was the writer of this letter.
Now the question is if one believes “Son of Man” means Jesus as God. Now Bart Ehrman has been inclinde to not believe so, which i disagree with. And to prove it, Eusebius an early church father in 3rd century i think. Basically he didnt believe Jesus was divine, or well he had sympathetic points towards arianism which held the view that Jesus was a man more or less, he more or less agreed when the church itself came to that final conclusion but still had soft spot for arianism. And yet, in his writings he quotes Jospehus which says in the writings of James which says “Jesus, the son of man”… So it would be unlikely for Eusebius to be bias since he didnt really have the motive to be so.
The only question sceptics can do now is to believe the Daniel means something else, like Son of man enters, and the kingdom will be an everlasting kingdom. Whether this means Yahweh or Son of Man together?. Which i would incline the evidence points too.