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Bev17243
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I know that Papal Infallibility was defined by the Vatican Council I 1869. I heard however that in early church Pope was not considered infalliable. Is it true? And if itsn’t why wasn’t this defined before 1869?
=Bev17243;9001136]I know that Papal Infallibility was defined by the Vatican Council I 1869. I
The issue of Infallibility is often not understood. the CC teaches that ALL teachings by the Pope or the Magisterium on ALL Matter of Faith beliefs and or Morals MUST be accepted even if not “infallibily procliamed” Canon Law # 751-to 754
Infallible Pronouncement s are commonly ONLY for the declariation of Dogma’s
The Priamcy Of Peter [Popes} dates to the practice of the Apostles themselves
The Early Church Fathers understood from the beginning that Peter and his successors held a place of primacy in the Church.
Sounds like the quote attributed to Augustine (4th, 5th century): “Roma locuta est, causa finita est” - Rome has spoken, the matter is settled.If I remember correcting, a class I had on the popes and the papacy, the idea of infallibility didnt start to emerge until the 13th? 14th ?century.
There was a dispute amongst some Fransican communities (I pretty sure it was the Fransicians) about property and holding property is common?
Anyway, the pope at the time made a ruling, and the dispute was settled because “the pope had spoken”
Formally defined as dogma in 1870, the early example of the Pope speaking “ex Cathedra” goes back to 1302 in Unum Sanctus by Pope Boniface VIII. A reference exists in 1075 by Pope Gregory VII which states the Roman Church cannot err. The Formula of Homisdas makes reference to to the Seat of Peter, the Pope, as the preserver of the faith, in 1519 and this may refer back to Pope Gregory in 1075 that the Church cannot err.I know that Papal Infallibility was defined by the Vatican Council I 1869. I heard however that in early church Pope was not considered infalliable. Is it true? And if itsn’t why wasn’t this defined before 1869?
Yes. In practice he always was. His first infallible pronouncement is “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the Living God.” This pronouncement, proclamation and judgement was entirely inspired by, and even the word of, the Divine Spirit, as Christ Himself affirms.I know that Papal Infallibility was defined by the Vatican Council I 1869. I heard however that in early church Pope was not considered infalliable. Is it true? And if itsn’t why wasn’t this defined before 1869?
I stand corrected. I like 1AugustSon7’s take on the first infallable papal decree.It occurs to me that if we define Papal Infallibility as the Holy Spirit keeping the Pope from teaching error on Faith and Morals, then would not the first instance of this be when Peter determines that circumcision is not needed to be a part of the faith:
But some from the party of the Pharisees who had become believers stood up and said, “It is necessary to circumcise them and direct them to observe the Mosaic law. The apostles and the presbyters met together to see about this matter. After much debate had taken place, Peter got up and said to them, “My brothers, you are well aware that from early days God made his choice among you that through my mouth the Gentiles would hear the word of the gospel and believe. And God, who knows the heart, bore witness by granting them the holy Spirit just as he did us. He made no distinction between us and them, for by faith he purified their hearts. 10Why, then, are you now putting God to the test by placing on the shoulders of the disciples a yoke that neither our ancestors nor we have been able to bear? On the contrary, we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus,g in the same way as they. -Acts 15:5-11
You can’t get much earlier than that.
I always take authority to mean that you must believe what is said, and infallibility meaning that there is no more room for development in that area. Infallibility is the summit of the authority. At least that’s how I look at it.Would it be fair to say that authority and infallibility are synonymous in definition? There is there really is not distinction between the two?
The issue with the Franciscans is remotely related to infallibility, but it’s really an issue of obedience. The wording in the Rule concerning the individual ownership of property is quite clear. There is nothing that prohibits the corporate ownership of property. However, Francis’ actions are very clear that he opposed it; but he never wrote it down. The argument was whether one followed the written law or the example set by the founder. The pope decided.If I remember correcting, a class I had on the popes and the papacy, the idea of infallibility didnt start to emerge until the 13th? 14th ?century.
There was a dispute amongst some Fransican communities (I pretty sure it was the Fransicians) about property and holding property is common?
Anyway, the pope at the time made a ruling, and the dispute was settled because “the pope had spoken”
That was the being seeds of the development of the doctrine now known as papal infallibility.
(Im sure if I am wrong Bro. J. will correct and set aright the history)
Yes. In practice he always was. His first infallible pronouncement is “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the Living God.” This pronouncement, proclamation and judgement was entirely inspired by, and even the word of, the Divine Spirit, as Christ Himself affirms.
In the Jerusalem Council this is also made clear. Saint Peter was in Saint Jame’s See/Bishopric (in Jerusalem), yet it is evident that he had a universal primacy and jurisdiction even there.
Further, it was Saint Peter that established the heirarchical arrangement of the early Church, which all later Popes were very careful to maintain and honour.
Further, all the earliest evidence indicates that it was the accepted Tradition of the Church to defer matters to Rome for a final judgement.
kjkjkjkjkjI know that Papal Infallibility was defined by the Vatican Council I 1869. I heard however that in early church Pope was not considered infalliable. Is it true? And if itsn’t why wasn’t this defined before 1869?
Would you please elaborate a little bit more about the comment that “it is heresy to dispute Francis”. I do not understand which logical/informed path I need to follow to reach that conclusion. Sometimes I can be thick and I do not get it.…This was put to the test after Francis died. The Superior General made some changes. He was charged with violating Francis’ will. The General Chapter gathered and the brothers voted to dismiss him from the order and to petition Rome for excommunication and execution for heresy. ** It is heresy to dispute Francis**…
Thanks Lexus,Papal infallibility was defined in 1870,just like The Title “Mother of God” was defined in 431, The 2 Natures of Christ in One Divine person was defined in 451 ETC… every Dogma of The Catholic Church is Biblical.
St.Luke 22:31-32 And the Lord said: Simon, Simon, behold Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat: But I have prayed for thee, that THY FAITH FAIL NOT: and thou, being once converted, confirm thy brethren.
The Pope cannot err when speaking on a Doctrine that binds The ENTIRE Church or on Faith or Morals.
“Peter was pronounced blessed by the Lord…the duty of feeding the spiritual sheep of the Church under whose protecting shield, this Apostolic Church of his has NEVER turned away from the path of truth in ANY direction of ERROR, whose AUTHORITY, as that of the Prince of all the Apostles, the whole Catholic Church and the Ecumenical Synods have faithfully embraced…” Pope Agatho,To Ecumenical Council VI at Constantinople(A.D. 680)
“You are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not prevail against it… The First See, therefore, is that of Peter the Apostle, that of the Roman Church, which has neither the stain, nor blemish, nor anything like it.” Pope Damasus(A.D. 382)
Papal Infallibility happened at The Council of Chalcedon in 451 because Pope Leo was proclaiming a doctrine that would bind the ENTIRE Church. Pope Leo could not err when speaking about the 2 Natures of Christ in One Divine Person.
The Pope’s letter was read to the assemblage of bishops, and they cried with one voice: “Peter has spoken by Leo; let him be anathema who believes otherwise!”
The word “infallible” actually means “cannot fail” or “unfailing.” Therefore, the very term Papal Infallibility comes directly from Christ’s promise to St. Peter (and his successors) in Luke 22, that Peter has an unfailing Faith. And it was also believed in the early Church, as we see here. It was specifically defined as a dogma at the First Vatican Council in 1870.
In his Testament, Francis decreed that the rule had been revealed by Christ himself and that no human hand played any part in its creation. He also decreed that the brothers were to obey him without question and he vowed to obey the bishops and the pope without question. The chain of command from top to bottom is Pope - Francis - General Chapter - Superior General - Regional Superior - Local Superior.Would you please elaborate a little bit more about the comment that “it is heresy to dispute Francis”. I do not understand which logical/informed path I need to follow to reach that conclusion. Sometimes I can be thick and I do not get it.![]()