S
SemperFidelis
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Couldn’t agree more with you there.If people wouldn’t break up their marriages, then we’d wouldn’t have to sit here and listen to everyone rip apart other people and their beliefs.
Couldn’t agree more with you there.If people wouldn’t break up their marriages, then we’d wouldn’t have to sit here and listen to everyone rip apart other people and their beliefs.
thanks, this one works but the others don’t I think it may be my computer.Okay, there’s been a fault on my part with the link to the church fathers; here it is again:
marriagedivorce.com/mdfathers.htm
But the other two links work, don’t they?
Isa Almisry, you write:
What would greatly interest me if it is scientifically established if the canons of St. Basil really were St. Basil’s - or if they were rather pseudo-Basilian, so to say. Well, I’m further interested in the content of these canons in relation to the remarriage question; maybe the Council of Trullo quite plainly misused them?
And civil marriages weren’t abolished before or long before Trullo, were they?
Please quote or offer the link.
Yours,
Whim
P.S.: The thread at byzcath.org was shut down for reasons incomprehensible to me.
No, the Fathers, and their canons accepted by the Ecumenical Councils allowed it for adultery, which is probably contrary to everything you have been told…So the Orthodox don’t allow divorce then? This is contrary to everything I’ve heard…
Only two things I’ve ever heard that could remotely be called an “Orthodox Annullment”So you’ll admit your Church has changed then since they grant annulments too?
St. Basil canon, accepted by the Quinisext and Seventh Ecumenical Councils:That being said, I’m not so quick to do so, and I can’t find anything on the Fathers that says “no annulments,” because they all say “no divorce.”
If it makes you feel good…Since Divorce does NOT equal anulment I guess Catholics are in the clear.
Semantics. Mark 7:11-3.I’m sure you know this, but an annulment is the recognition that a Sacramental Marriage never took place.
Soooo as long as we keep the letter of the law…The fact that it is used “somewhat widely” today is of no consequence as the Church still hasn’t changed anything regarding the teaching that Divorce is a sin and that the Church won’t allow it. I’ll admit that annulments are used too widely today, but it still doesn’t change the principle.
take a look at orthodoxchristianity.net while you’re at it.As to the OP, I do recommend you take this issue over to www.byzcath.org, as the Eastern Catholics on there regularly make the Orthoox (and there’s many on their too) look foolish as they try to attack the Catholic stance on this issue. Interesting to note the Orthodox hardly ever try to defend their position on this, probably because most Orthodox have realized they’ve changed on this issue, and that the their position on divorce is almost untenable when looking at the historical Orthodox teachings regarding this.
If this issue wasn’t brought up with such triumphalism and sanctimony, the issue of annulments being Latin divorces wouldn’t come up.For once I’d like to see someone who is Orthodox actually defend the Orthodox position on divorce without their first words being: “well the Catholics have annulments, and those are really just Catholic divorces” (No, no, and not the case).
This is what I got from reading and don’t ask I don’t remember where will have to look it up again.Well, I already spend a hard time looking, but I couldn’t fetch up a sufficient, or even superficial answer to my one and only question:
Okay, here again is my main question:
Did the early church celebrate second marriages in the church, were they blessed by the priest, as the Orthodox practise today, or was this incorporation of formerly only civilly/legally performed second marriages into the rite of the Church a later development, yeah, deviation from the thinking of the Fathers?
If you know a thread on byzcath.org adressing this question, let me know.
Yes. I notice they quote St. Basil, but not the quotation I have provided. Silence on why St. Basil wrote said canon.Okay, there’s been a fault on my part with the link to the church fathers; here it is again:
marriagedivorce.com/mdfathers.htm
But the other two links work, don’t they?
Isa Almisry, you write:
Antiquarian interest now. Their Ecumenical authority comes from the councils that adopted them, not St. Basil.What would greatly interest me if it is scientifically established if the canons of St. Basil really were St. Basil’s - or if they were rather pseudo-Basilian, so to say.
Since the canons cover a array of issues and not just marriage, what would be the intent?Well, I’m further interested in the content of these canons in relation to the remarriage question; maybe the Council of Trullo quite plainly misused them?
I haven’t been able to get the date, whether it was Leo III’s Ecloga (shortly after Trullo) or Basil (10th cent.) or some other date. I first came across it in Conniaris (?) “Marriage, Sexuality in the Greek Orthodox Church” or something like that (I’m having server trouble looking it up to confirm). It was part of several reforms of Roman law, where laws that contradicted the canons were held null and void, and marriage was put entirely in the Church’s handsAnd civil marriages weren’t abolished before or long before Trullo, were they?
The Pedalion isn’t online, and my copy is in storage.Please quote or offer the link.
And if we didn’t have a legal system that created a multi-billion dollar industry that gorges itself on dismembering families.If people wouldn’t break up their marriages, then we’d wouldn’t have to sit here and listen to everyone rip apart other people and their beliefs.
Ditto.Couldn’t agree more with you there.
ExactlyIf people wouldn’t break up their marriages, then we’d wouldn’t have to sit here and listen to everyone rip apart other people and their beliefs.
Section 5 Special Procedure for Marital Problems
- Whenever the parish priest is unable, through pastoral counseling, to prevent the dissolution of a marriage and the conflict results in a civil divorce and if the interested persons themselves seek from the Church a definition of their status as divorcees, a petition is filed with the Diocesan Court, which examines the documents and makes a new attempt at reconciling the parties.
- If the reconciliation fails, the court shall come to a final decision. In issuing its opinion, the court may recommend that penance be imposed by the bishop upon the guilty party/-ies. On the basis of this court decision, the bishop issues the following statement:
oca.org/DOCstatute.asp?SID=12&ID=11Code:"Having heard the conclusion of the Diocesan Court of the _____ Diocese concerning the judgment of divorce rendered by the _____ Court of _____ dissolving the marriage between (Name) _____ and (Name) _____ celebrated at _____ on _____, I,_____, Bishop of _____ hereby acknowledge the conclusion of the civil court as final. [Invoking God's mercy and compassion, I allow (Name) _____ to enter into a new marital union with (Name) _____ and receive the sacraments of the Church starting on _____."
Yes, I’ve heard of this before and after reading the below can understand it. However, why then do the Orthodox today allow divorce for all most any reason? What say you about this?No, the Fathers, and their canons accepted by the Ecumenical Councils allowed it for adultery, which is probably contrary to everything you have been told…
And these are still annulments are they not? You asked earlier which canon allowed for annulments? Well which canon does? Where do the Orthodox get the authority to do such things if no canon exists? We at least have Councils that discuss this.Only two things I’ve ever heard that could remotely be called an “Orthodox Annullment”
1 Esdras 10:1-14At least the Pauline privilege has a biblical and patristic basis
So says you…Semantics. Mark 7:11-3.
Yes, because Priests are mind-readers and can know the entire intent of those coming into Holy Matrimony beforehand. [/sarcasm]Any consequence for those who preside over invalid marriages, not checking on form, matter and intent beforehand?
Possibly, but that’s up to God. This issue is like the selling of indulgences. Popes try and get the madness to stop, but sometimes folks just refuse to listen. It’s easy to “armchair quarterback” and say what you would do in the given situation, but sometimes Popes have to think more in the grand scheme of things.Any consequence for tribunals who use them “too widely?”
I actually looked at that site in great detail when I was still deciding between Catholicism and Orthodoxy. However there, like everywhere else, the answers for divorce, as well as artificial birth control just came up very short in my opinion.take a look at orthodoxchristianity.net while you’re at it.
I apologize then if any triumphalism was seen as my intent. I can assure you it wasn’t. I just wanted to advise the OP according to what Catholics understand of the situation. This is after all, a Catholic forum.If this issue wasn’t brought up with such triumphalism and sanctimony, the issue of annulments being Latin divorces wouldn’t come up.
Great post, Woodstock! Thanks for all the info and wisdom.The West believes that marriage is contractual between the parties and the bride and groom are the ministers of the sacrament. The Church requires witnesses from the Church to safeguard and protect the sacrament and the people from abuse, not for validity. The canon law now requires those who are capable of having Church witnesses to do so as proof that they intend what the Church intends, but it also makes allowance for those who are unable to reach Catholic clergy.
A contractual understanding of marriage means a presumably valid contract might not have met the validity requirements and if that is later discovered, the contract is null and void and neither party is bound to it. Canon law presumes validity unless determined otherwise and recognizes that there are putitive marriages which are presumed valid but in unknown actuality invalid. In this set-up, if the contract is valid and the wedding is licit and the marriage sacramental, then there can be no breaking it.
The Eastern concept of marriage is more top-down. When the proper priest presides in the proper church with the proper ceremony then the wedding is valid before God and therefore eternal. The emphasis is not on the couple, but on the wedding’s validity. They must adhere to what they know and what has been passed down. It is possible to invalidate an Orthodox wedding with an annulment, like for consanguinity, but less likely. With this definity, there is no process in place to recognize an end to a marriage which was done with the correct legalities and the Orthodox continue to recognize its validity even after death.
At the same time, the East has a concept of law and economy. Anything done short of the law is not known to fulfill the law and they hope that the Lord will take mercy and make up for any deficiencies they are unable to address themselves, but it is not guaranteed. The East can apply this concept to any law, including marital laws, if they feel the parties were unable to do better and are seeking through some sub-standard way to do the will of God. They can say that it doesn’t meet the legal criteria, but they hope that God will make up the remainder and accept what they are doing. It’s got to be better for them to be seeking to do God’s will, even if they fall short, than not seeking it at all, right? And so they now accept divorce and remarriage with economy, as well as the marriages of converts, hoping God will have mercy and supply an overabundance of faith.
Both East and West are legalistic and both purpose to address when sinners fall short, as we inevitably will.
I can understand the compassion of the Latin approach within its system. The contract you entered into didn’t work like it was supposed to, so they say, “well, let’s make sure the contract was valid first.” If it was, they say that there is nothing more they can do in that regard as God sees the person as married and offer social services to help the person best fulfill the will of God through the current circumstances.
I don’t understand the Orthodox response, though. The entire premise is that one must stay within the bounds of what is known and what has been handed on. It is my query how Orthodox priests can apply economy with good faith, hoping the Lord will accept a second or third remarriage, when the early church fathers were clear about that not being an option. I do not understand how they can justify teaching that it is an option or regularly performing second and third marriages knowing that it is not within the bounds of the faith that was passed on to them. To perform a second marriage under these circumstances has zero certainty of finding favor with the Lord, questionably rests on mercy and grace, and goes against what has been passed down to them as being God’s will. Instead of calling people to do what God wills for them, it puts a stamp of approval on what is known to be contrary to God’s will and encourages people to strive for nothing more. It is only social convention which overrides to embarrass a person into not taking advantage of the leniency of the Church.
The Pauline and Petrine Privileges can be contrasted with that because the purpose is to move someone out of a non-Christian and non-sacramental (not recognized by God) marriage into a sacramental Christian marriage which will be bringing the person closer to the Lord with certainty under the Latin model.
Under the Orthodox model, a second or third marriage is known to be taking a person away from God and a determination is made to overlook this, supposedly in favor of his ultimate salvation. It isn’t going to get him back to his wife or fully living his vows, so I don’t understand how, outside of death of a spouse, this can be reasonably, much less casually, recommended or allowed.
I hardly found them a slam dunk.You can find them it made it clear to me that the Orthodox position on divorce is untenable. It doesn’t have to be a “heated” debate to prove something. However, I don’t have the time to pick out all the specific posts for you, but here’s a few threads with some of the posts in them:
The twin of this thread, with much the same responses.
This one someone states they admire the Latins for not allowing divorce, and then states that annullment is a sneaky loophole.
This one has a post that points out that the Latin tribunals say a marriage never existed and let the most guilty of marital partners to remarry, noting that we thought the mysticism of the East was inscrutable.
On this one our Mardukm asks for one canon that shows that a ECF allowed remarriage when the first spouse was alive. I posted the canon of St. Basil above.
Just keep repeatingI still have yet to see an Orthodox Christian give a good defense of the Orthodox teaching on divorce without accusing the “Latins” of having “Catholic divorces,” which for anyone who’s done any studying, is most definitely not the case for annulments.
I guess so.I guess when that’s all you’ve got, you come short…
Taking for instance, St. Basil’s canon: he formulated it centuries before civil marriage was abolished (btw, it then became the betrothal service). I’m still not sure of when it was abolished, but it was after Justinanian I remember (Leo III?, Basil the Macedonian?, Leo IV?). At most, the abolition codied what had been practiced according to canon.Isa Almisry,
let’s postulate a controversial thesis:
since the regulation of marriage was enteriley placed into the hands of the Curch, that is, since the civil marriage was so to say abolished, the Church blessed adulterous(i.e. second) marriages in rite; beforehand, they were contracted outside the Church, just civilly. That is, due to the mixture of Church and State the doctrine of the church was confounded; what was merely tolerated by the bishops beforehand, namely a second marriage, then received blessing of the Church in ceremony. This, again, lead to a confusion of theology and to the forgetting of the strong stance of the fathers against remarriage, Clement Alexnadria, Origen, Basil included.
What do you mean?
Abuse.Yes, I’ve heard of this before and after reading the below can understand it. However, why then do the Orthodox today allow divorce for all most any reason? What say you about this?
Not in the Latin sense.And these are still annulments are they not?
For example: Laodica (accepted by Chalcedon, Quinsext, Nicea II)You asked earlier which canon allowed for annulments? Well which canon does? Where do the Orthodox get the authority to do such things if no canon exists?
Which one would that be?We at least have Councils that discuss this.
this verse has already been disposed of on this thread.1 Esdras 10:1-14
So says the Lord.So says you…
So they can read them with crystal clarity decades later.Yes, because Priests are mind-readers and can know the entire intent of those coming into Holy Matrimony beforehand. [/sarcasm]
Perhaps the best way to stop is not to start.Possibly, but that’s up to God. This issue is like the selling of indulgences. Popes try and get the madness to stop, but sometimes folks just refuse to listen. It’s easy to “armchair quarterback” and say what you would do in the given situation, but sometimes Popes have to think more in the grand scheme of things.
I’ve always found it odd to decide a church based on what it says is bad things (the Latin church does say anullments are bad, like the Orthodox say divorce is bad, nay evil, no?)I actually looked at that site in great detail when I was still deciding between Catholicism and Orthodoxy. However there, like everywhere else, the answers for divorce, as well as artificial birth control just came up very short in my opinion.
Not anymore. We’re in non-Catholic territory now.I apologize then if any triumphalism was seen as my intent. I can assure you it wasn’t. I just wanted to advise the OP according to what Catholics understand of the situation. This is after all, a Catholic forum.
So I guess the street’s one way for you then? The Orthodox can abuse divorce, but God forbid that the “Latins” do it with annulments.Abuse.
Watch out for that log.
If it walks like a duck and talks like a duck…Not in the Latin sense.
Not that it matters to you, because you wouldn’t recognize it, try reading the parts of Trent that discuss the indissolubility of marriage.Which one would that be?
Ah, yes because your one short sentence on it on page one really did the trick. Since Rome has the Primacy, I’ll stick with them.this verse has already been disposed of on this thread.