C
corrgc
Guest
Greetings fellow Christians,
I’ve heard Christians of different denominations state that when Jesus exclaimed from the cross “My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matt 27:46), it was because God the Father had turned away from him. Because he was made to be sin (2 Cor 5:21) and the Father’s holiness does not allow him to behold evil, the Father abandoned the Son at that moment. It was our sin, the sins of the whole world that caused this, nothing Jesus did himself. In a recent scripture study class, I heard a well-versed Catholic propose the same interpretation.
I’ve always interpreted the verse to be Jesus exhortation of Psalm 22. A Psalm that explains the torment felt by a persecuted follower of God, which ends with vindication and in praise of God. Our Lord Jesus did suffer agonizingly on the cross, and did indeed bear the sin of the whole world, but never did the Father abandon the Son.
What do you think? Are both, either or neither of these interpretations tenable?
Sincerely in Christ,
Corrgc
I’ve heard Christians of different denominations state that when Jesus exclaimed from the cross “My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matt 27:46), it was because God the Father had turned away from him. Because he was made to be sin (2 Cor 5:21) and the Father’s holiness does not allow him to behold evil, the Father abandoned the Son at that moment. It was our sin, the sins of the whole world that caused this, nothing Jesus did himself. In a recent scripture study class, I heard a well-versed Catholic propose the same interpretation.
I’ve always interpreted the verse to be Jesus exhortation of Psalm 22. A Psalm that explains the torment felt by a persecuted follower of God, which ends with vindication and in praise of God. Our Lord Jesus did suffer agonizingly on the cross, and did indeed bear the sin of the whole world, but never did the Father abandon the Son.
What do you think? Are both, either or neither of these interpretations tenable?
Sincerely in Christ,
Corrgc