C
Cavaradossi
Guest
Except they always have, because a synod has always been recognized to have more power than any one bishop.Except when they haven’t.
Except they always have, because a synod has always been recognized to have more power than any one bishop.Except when they haven’t.
One of those supremacy decisions was that no bishop can be ordained without the Holy Father’s permission.There are countless examples of the exercise of papal primacy that have been discussed to death on this board… but in regards to declaring dogma, even since the declaration of the dogma of papal infallibility at Vatican I (nearly 150 years ago), the popes have only exercised that authority twice to define dogmas… it is not the ordinary means by which the Church operates. The Church prefers, as Vatican II clarified, to work through the entire episcopate united under the leadership of the pope… hence the reinstitution of a regular synod of bishops held in Rome every few years. The popes did proclaim the truth and did ask heretical patriarchs to renounce their heresies, but all bishops have freewill. How many bishops in the last 50 years have preached or practiced tenants contrary to papal teaching? Even within the Latin Church, which is directly under Rome’s administrative authority, you rarely, rarely, rarely, rarely see the Pope “discipline” a bishop - this is a most extreme option and only used as a last resort. The Popes, at least in recent memory, treat even Latin bishops as brothers and respect their autonomy and God-given authority. The liturgy in Rome is a far cry from the liturgy in many Latin dioceses. Do Latin bishops recognize the pope as their head? Yes…but not as an absolute monarch…otherwise more would be following his lead…which they often don’t (nor are they expected to) on a wide range of issues.
What does that mean?But the Pope is an absolute monarch.
Doesn’t it say below and in many similar writings that the Roman church holds the succession of the primacy of Peter?Indeed, I did not argue that the Scriptures do not show some sort of primacy for Peter, only that they never detail who would succeed him, and in what way his successor would exercise his primacy.
That is simply begging the question. In trying to prove that Peter had a direct successor who inherited the privileges enjoyed by the modern-day papacy (something not mentioned in the scriptures, and indeed prerogatives not even given to Peter in the scriptures), it has already been assumed in this argument that the bishop of Rome is such a successor.
Not sure what the actual point was guan, Tertullian presents the same argument, I assume this is where this is coming from.You are saying the Bishop of Rome committed this heresy?.
The Roman church does holds the succession of the primacy of Peter.Doesn’t it say below and in many similar writings that the Roman church holds the succession of the primacy of Peter?
6- “Likewise it is decreed . . . that it ought to be announced that . . . the holy Roman Church has been placed at the forefront not by the conciliar decisions of other churches, but has received the primacy by the evangelic voice of our Lord and Savior, who says: ‘You are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not prevail against it; and I will give to you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you shall have bound on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you shall have loosed on earth shall be loosed in heaven’ [Matt. 16:18–19]. The first see, therefore, is that of Peter the apostle, that of the Roman Church, which has neither stain nor blemish nor anything like it” (Decree of Damasus3 [A.D. 382]).
So the question becomes this, is there a divinely authorized primacy of jurisdiction?
The fact that disbelief, disobedience and misunderstanding has been a on-going reality only indicates a refusal to obey legitimately constituted authority, thus these points shouldn’t be taken as proof of absence of the above point
I think a balanced pastoral interfence by the Pope into the affairs of the east is okay,wasn’t it becoming an issue in Photius’ time and they didn’t want papal interference?
I think a balanced pastoral interfence by the Pope into the affairs of the east is okay,wasn’t it becoming an issue in Photius’ time and they didn’t want papal interference?So the question becomes this, is there a divinely authorized primacy of jurisdiction?
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Thank you for your help. Is Obl. OSB only for law or also for Priests and Religious?
=Schism hater;You left off the rest, and crucial part of the passage. The entire assempbly, presided over by St. James, decides the issue.
Your position confirms the adage my grandpa use to share" PETER HAD SPOKEN!Cherry-picking scripture is not a good thing.
Niether are arch bishops or cardinals, what does that proove? Nether Catholics or Orthodox are in the least solo-scriptura.I have always found it interesting that in the Orthodox churches that the buck stops at the Patriarch. Patriarchs arre not in the Bible. The Patriarch of Canstaninope dates back to Canstantine. The Pope dates back to the Gospell of Mathew. So how can one legitimise a Patriarch over the Pope is byond me.
What does that mean?
I’m not denying that Peter was given keys. I am denying that the keys were solely given to Rome as there are at least three Petrine Sees (Rome, Antioch, and Alexandria). My point was that I don’t understand how the primacy of Peter is limited to Rome when even you have pointed out he was given “keys” and not a “key.”What were the “keys” given to Peter?
Thank God for St Mark of Ephesus.Yes, in 1438 …Council of Ferrara. Agreed to a lot,
Proof texting is completely ineffectual as an apologetic tactic, because it marks a lack of understanding of the position of the opponent. For example, what purpose does it serve to present proof texts concerning Peter’s primacy to Orthodox Christians, who do not deny that Peter possessed a primacy among the apostles? Similarly what purpose does it serve to illustrate to Orthodox Christians that Rome was afforded a primacy of sorts in the first millennium, when nobody denies this? The difference is that the primacy of Rome, according to the Orthodox was neither inalienable, nor did it guarantee indefectibility to the Church of Rome. Similarly, while we understand the historical primacy of Rome to be based on the primacy of Peter, we understand in accordance with the great Eastern exegetes like the Cappadocians, St. John Chrysostom, St. Cyril and even some Western exegetes like St. Augustine, and St. Leo of most-blessed memory that the power and type of Peter is proposed to all pastors of the Church. That is to say, primates are primates in virtue of having received the power of Peter, possessed by all bishops, in their ordination.Your position confirms the adage my grandpa use to share" PETER HAD SPOKEN!
“your much more likely to find trouble when you go looking for it”
Your giving your OWN opinion.
The Early Church Fathers on
The Primacy of Peter/Rome
The Early Church Fathers understood from the beginning that Peter and his successors held a place of primacy in the Church. . . [list of proof texts has ben omitted to save space]
The pope doesn’t have, nor does he claim authority over the other Patriarchs. He has authority, through the Holy Spirit, over Catholic doctrines of faith and morals when speaking ex cathedra. It then becomes the privilege of the others to agree or disagree with the Holy Spirit’s revelation to the pope.I think it is best to say that the Eastern Churches throughout history have accepted the primacy of the Bishop of Rome among the Patriarchs and even the universal episcopate, but that does not mean that anyone in the East would ever, or should ever, accept the idea of being in “submission” to the Pope. Nor does it mean that the Bishop of Rome has authority over the other Patriarchs and bishops, because that would be to conceive “authority” in a manner similar to the Gentiles, and Christ condemned that idea.
What do you see as the differences? (Apologies in advance if this question is asked and answered in later posts.)If all the Eastern patriarchs suddenly declared unity with Rome, would there be true unity? I don’t think so, because we are not completely unified in the substance of the Faith.
St. James decision was to accept St. Peter’s decision. He made his declaration as the presider of the Council by virtue of the Council’s being conducted in his diocese. That’s the way it works to this day.I said that St. Peter gave arguably the most influential speech at the Council, didn’t I? But he was just one of several speakers. You left off the rest, and crucial part of the passage. The entire assempbly, presided over by St. James, decides the issue.
The keys to heaven? The authority to bind and loose (to Peter first, then to the rest)? Feed my sheep? Strengthen your brothers? Seems clear to me.Now the claim that the papacy dates to the gospel of Matthew is also rather hard to substantiate, as the Gospel of Matthew mentions not what the ecclesiological function of the bishop of Rome should be,
“As the Father has sent me, so I send you.” (Citation omitted.) and John 16:13.nor does it mention either that Peter will have a successor, or whether his successor would have the modern day supremacy claimed by the bishop of Rome.