Did the Orthodox Churches ever submit to the Pope's Authority?

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Thus also we see Sardica with St Athanasius and Pope Julius also.

“to the head , that is to the See of Peter the Apostle, the bishops of the Lord shall refer from all provinces…” (orthodox Catholic bishops to Pope Julius I, Council of Sardica, c. 343 AD)
 
A classic example of eisegesis (reading something into scripture that isn’t there). Christ never tells the apostles Peter is to lead them or rule them. In Luke he indicates Peter will have a leadership role in the early Church, which no one denies.

No one denies?? If you mean ***only ***in the early Church, I deny it and I know some other Catholics who deny it and we know of billions of Catholics over the course of time who denied it.

It may not be clear to you whether the Lord set Peter as leader of the Apostles, but it’s crystal clear He set him as leader of the Church (feed my sheep). If you think Jesus came to build a Church for the 1st Century only, there’s not much we can say to each other.
Schism hater;10208743:
That is far removed from the universal primacy of the Bishop of Rome. Not to mention Acts 15 destroys any notion of Peter as “ruler” over the early Church, much less his successors.
Absolutely false. The Council adopted Peter’s judgment. James ratified it and threw a bone to his constituency with the dietetic laws.
 
The canons of Serdica, which were eventually accepted by the East into its own canonical framework, are often misinterpreted in the West as an endorsement of the Late Medieval monarchical papacy; while in the East the canons of that local council are still read in a synodical fashion, that is, they are seen as supporting the idea of appeal to the bishop of Rome in order to determine whether or not a new synodal trial (i.e., of the individual bishop concerned or of the theological point in dispute) is warranted. Hamilton Hess, in his historical study of the Serdican Canons, has shown [see Hamiton Hess, The Early Development of Canon Law and the Council of Serdica, pages 179-200] that the canons as written do not support the idea that a pope can simply reverse a prior synodical decision on his own authority; instead, the canons allow him to judge whether or not a new trial should be held, and - in conjunction with that decision (i.e., if he chooses to call a new synod) - he is allowed to send representatives to sit in the new council, and cast a vote (a single vote) with the other bishops re-hearing the case. That being said, it is clear that the Serdican Canons do not support the idea that the pope is a super-bishop, who - on his own authority - can issue a new judgment that overturns a prior synodical decision, because the pope’s primacy only exists within the Church’s synodical framework, and not in isolation from it. In other words, the pope is not an absolute monarch, who can do whatever he wants whenever he wants, and who lords it over the other members of the Church’s hierarchy like a Gentile king.
 
Nevertheless we see the Apostolic Church’s more clearly be it issues here and there. The Universal Church takes on another added meaning. When we discuss those who say they don’t believe in our Church’s and Tradition, we say sadly we agree. However, the message continues to be transmitted and rightfully so. Then in another sense these Church’s indicate the then and now of the Church’s in Revelation. They are lights, and within these lights, the Light of the World remains ever present.
 
[Absolutely false. The Council adopted Peter’s judgment. James ratified it and threw a bone to his constituency with the dietetic laws.
So “It is my decision” actually means “I ratify Peter’s judgment”??? Sorry, I’ll go with the actual language of St. Luke.
[/quote]
 
It occurred to me though that that was tantamount to rejecting the authority, (in terms of pastoral guidance, and the preservation of truth) of every self-governing Eastern Orthodox Bishop, including the authority of St. Ignatius,
St. Ignatius was not an Eastern Orthodox bishop. He was a Catholic bishop.
 
It seems to me that this whole issue of the role of the papacy would have been much easier for both Churches to work out had the papacy not evolved into a type of monarchy.
Peter was and elder and definitely had the prime role in the early Church. But it IS true that subsequent popes used the position to amass power, all kinds of power, which put off the eastern Churches. I don’t blame them.
All kinds of power?? Such as? Your statement is incomplete until you describe the 'amassed power you allege and your conclusion is uninformed.
 
Absolutely false. The Council adopted Peter’s judgment. James ratified it and threw a bone to his constituency with the dietetic laws.
There is no textual support for your contention. St. James, and not St. Peter, was leading the council in Acts 15. Roman Catholics need to calm down and not worry so much about the fact that their Late Medieval views on the papacy are not found in scripture or the ancient Fathers.

It is far better to focus on the fact that scripture and tradition (in both East and West) support the idea that primacy is an inherent element of episcopacy, and it is best to approach the primacy of the bishop of Rome in that manner.
 
That has nothing to do with the institution of a sureme infallible bishop of Rome which one must be in submission to. PS…Are you familiar with the Greek usage of the word “love” in John 21. 😉
It has to do with the installation of Peter and his office as the Vicar of Christ. ‘Supreme infallible Bishop of Rome’ is your jargon. What do you mean by it? What is the substance of this infallibility you accuse our popes of having?
Here is something else:
He speaks from this time lowly things, on His way to His passion, that He might show His humanity. For He that hath built His Church upon Peter’s confession, and has so fortified it, that ten thousand dangers and deaths are not to prevail over it [St. John Chrysostom]
What about it?
Who wrote this? It does not seem to come from one of the Fathers of the Church.
I don’t know. It’s an exegetical argument based on the Scripture passages cited intended to support the doctrine of papal authority. What does it matter who wrote it? It speaks for itself.
 
Have you ever read St Augustine’s retractions?
St Augustine****
In a passage in this book, I said about the Apostle Peter: ‘On him as on a rock the Church was built’…But I know that very frequently at a later time, I so explained what the Lord said: ‘Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church,’ that it be understood as built upon Him whom Peter confessed saying: ‘Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God,’ and so Peter, called after this rock, represented the person of the Church which is built upon this rock, and has received ‘the keys of the kingdom of heaven.’ For, ‘Thou art Peter’ and not ‘Thou art the rock’ was said to him. But ‘the rock was Christ,’ in confessing whom, as also the whole Church confesses, Simon was called Peter. But let the reader decide which of these two opinions is the more probable (The Fathers of the Church (Washington D.C., Catholic University, 1968), Saint Augustine, The Retractations Chapter 20.1).

Christ, you see, built his Church not on a man but on Peter’s confession. What is Peter’s confession? ‘You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.’ There’s the rock for you, there’s the foundation, there’s where the Church has been built, which the gates of the underworld cannot conquer. **St **Augustine
Augustine was right the first time. Or, to put it another way, he’s wrong this time.
This is proof of nothing. We all know that St Peter received the keys and the power to bind and loose…as did all the apostles.
No we don’t all know that, Mickey. The Apostles were never given the keys and they were given binding and loosing authority apart from Peter. It’s in Scripture. Why do you insist on altering Scripture to fit your beliefs?? That’s Protestant.
 
So “It is my decision” actually means “I ratify Peter’s judgment”??? Sorry, I’ll go with the actual language of St. Luke.
The Council was held in Jerusalem. James was the Bishop of Jerusalem and, thus, the presiding officer of the Council. His statement was juridicial, not political. If you read the actual language of Luke, you’ll see James first cites Peter’s judgment, then declares its authority as the presider of the meeting. The line doesn’t mean what you think it means.
 
Schism hater;10208743:
AAbsolutely false. The Council adopted Peter’s judgment. James ratified it and threw a bone to his constituency with the dietetic laws.
Even if I were to accept this reading of Acts 15, if, as you believe Peter was “ruler” over the Church, why would it be necessary for St. James to “ratify” Peter’s judgment? To “ratify” means to confer validity on something.
 
Nor was St. Ignatios a “Roman Catholic” bishop; instead, he was a Catholic bishop who held the Orthodox faith.
I didn’t say he was a “Roman Catholic” bishop, did I? And he didn’t hold the Orthodox faith, either. There were no such thing in his time. He was an orthodox Catholic bishop.
 
Ferde Rombola;10210112:
Even if I were to accept this reading of Acts 15, if, as you believe Peter was “ruler” over the Church, why would it be necessary for St. James to “ratify” Peter’s judgment? To “ratify” means to confer validity on something.
Did you read message #331 above? James was the presider of the Council. Ratification is a requirement of a formal declaration; a formality, if you will, but Peter stated the doctrine the Council adopted. That’s clear in the text.
 
The Pope’s rule has always been part of the argument. It was clear there was a building opinion in Rome about the Pope’s role over the Church. If you look through the years you will see the gradual progression. The excommunication on the Patriarch of Constantinople was for his refusal to submit to the Pope. How is the Papacy not a central point?
Central to what? The perspectiive of many Eastern Christians to retain and matintain communion with Rome? I think we already agreed that, while there have been many such Eastern Christians, this point was not crucial.
So benevolence is relative? It is okay to accept the heavy hand of the Latins rather than the heavy hand of the Muslims, is that what you are getting here? I never thought of Catholicism to be about being just slightly better than the next bad guy.
Actually I was thinking of the Byzantines.
Heritage has nothing to do with it. As one who is of an equal, possibly greater pedigree than yours told me, that history is written by the victor. And while that is a common saying, he mentioned that in the context of our discussion of Church history and the Union of Brest. Every side tells their side as if it is the truth, but what then with the opposing view of each side? Fact is, the unions were a result of politics. The Union of Brest was conveniently signed not long after the authocephally of Moscow.
Heritage is very helpful in understanding the mentality of a people. I agree that you will get all sorts of sides and polemics in written history; having a deep understanding of the mindset of the people involved in that history helps to sort through the chaff.

Your “fact” about the unions is overly simplistic. My ancestors are from the See of Uzhhorod. Our union was forcefully opposed by local rulers, was done in light of 50 years of witnessing the pros and cons in Brest, and was not particularly related to Moscow, but more the the problems in Phanar, as we were immediately subject to the EP.
I find that the East are more honest with their sins than the West when the crusades and the inquisition painted in so much bright light rich in polemics. Nobody is pretending here that the East does not have its share of sins, but the topic of this thread is the Orthodox belief on the supreme rule of the Pope. So I don’t know why the sins of the East needs to be discussed. If you feel you want to talk about that, start a thread about it and lets be honest about everything. The East does not pretend they have a man that can do no wrong, all of us have fallen short.
These topics come up because they are brought up and demand a response.
Like the idea that " the East are more honest with their sins than the West". I would love to see an Orthodox exposition of the Crusades, including the fourth, that properly acknowledges their own particpation, treachery and culpabilty. Please, please send me a link. Or and link to an apology like JPII’s.

I have asked pointedly, here, on multiple occasions, for the least acknowledgement of the dastardly role played by EOC in the liquidation of Greek Catholic churches in Eastern Europe. No one ever has, and to this day the MP is in utter denial even as to the phoniness of the Synods of L’viv and Uzzhorod. I don’t know what informs your perspective, but it is the complete opposite of what I have experiences
We can only judge history by what happened, and what happened is that no one really was itching to get back with Rome for the right reason. Florence was really about politics, they were willing to submit to Rome in exchange for military support that never came
.
We can judge real facts, but motivations are hard to discern with accurately and precisely. What we do know, is that people did seek to restore and maintain communion with Rome. Again, what we know about Florence is that reunion was restored and held until abrogation by secular authorities. And by the way, what history suggests that support never came? How many Latins died at the fall of C’ple? Better what wasd the ratio of Byzantine to Latins fighting there? For that matter, how many in the first Crusade that drove the Ottomans back from Nicea and out of Western Anatolia?
Of course there were constant effort by Rome, like what the Jesuits did. And of course the unia model which sought to forcibly convert the Orthodox to Roman Catholicism.
I agree that not every method was good wise, and already said so. But your characterization of the unia is simply incompatible with the facts o f history. What type of force provided for the Bishops at Brest to choose, as they did, whether to participate or not?

I am glad that you see the constancy of Rome is seeking reunion. No “cut the baby in half”, or “get your own onion”. That, IMO, is probative.
 
The Council was held in Jerusalem. James was the Bishop of Jerusalem and, thus, the presiding officer of the Council. His statement was juridicial, not political. If you read the actual language of Luke, you’ll see James first cites Peter’s judgment, then declares its authority as the presider of the meeting. The line doesn’t mean what you think it means.
Yes, I do acknowledge that St. James, in rendering his decision, cites Peter’s earlier statement to the Council (“Simon has told you…”). He doesn’t call it a “judgment”. He doesn’t indicate the decision had already been made, he acts like he (St. James) is making it. You seem to be saying that when St. James says “It is my decision”, it is merely a formality. I think that is a hard position to defend. The whole sense of the passage, as I read it, is that, no doubt heavily, perhaps decisively, influenced by Peter’s statement, St. James, in accord with Peter and the rest of the council, renders the decision. The decision was made in the name of all the elders and presbyters gathered there.
 
Schism hater;10210235:
Did you read message #331 above? James was the presider of the Council. Ratification is a requirement of a formal declaration; a formality, if you will, but Peter stated the doctrine the Council adopted. That’s clear in the text.
From Merriam-Webster:
RATIFY
: to approve and sanction formally : confirm

If a treaty isn’t ratified, it has no force.

Furthermore, it is a common argument by RC apologists that Ecumencial Councils at which the Pope wasn’t present (e.g. Nicaea I, Constaintinople I, Ephesus, Chalcedon) derive their validity by their raitification by the Pope. Quite obviously, that they don’t regard ratification as a mere formality.
 
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