T
thinkandmull
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You don’t believe Aquinas believed in the classical Thomistic physical premotion idea?
I did not have my book at the time I made the first post so I did not include the quotes from Trent, just the teaching.That is not a quote from Trent
Calvin denies the distinction between primary and secondary causes (The Institutes, Ch. 23 Book III).Grace is a free gift. Nonetheless, Aquinas believed everything in creation hits the mark just as God intends it to in His overall plan, and also that people cannot go through life without sinning because free will is too corrupted. So he was a Calvinist by reduction
Sin can be overcome only with grace, only totally overcome via complete union with God. And grace is always resistible. So why shouldn’t the proper use of the will involve refinement, a struggle, a process?If man cannot refrain from sinning and also must accept efficacious grace, he is not free except in the sense that he feels free
Contra Gentiles 3:159 St. Thomas Aquinas states:If man cannot refrain from sinning and also must accept efficacious grace, he is not free except in the sense that he feels free
The Catholic Church calls free will which is natural free will, however free will cooperation with grace is the subject of the dogmas.If man is free he does not have to sin and so can overcome it with or without grace. That doesn’t mean he can be justified alone. I have proven that over and over on this thread. As for Aquinas, it would be nice if he didn’t agree with Banez. But Aquinas specifically said that everything happens exactly how God intends it to. Nothing contradicts His plan. Also man cannot go through life without sinning, so there is a promotion physica of fallen nature. So Aquinas did agree with Banez.
Vico, if you don’t agree with Banez, what problem do you have with Molinism then??
But to truly overcome sin would mean to *be *in a state of justice, and such a state cannot be achieved without God, apart from union with Him, apart from grace. So St Paul, in Phil 3:9, would forsake his former so-called “righteousness” and pursue “that which is through faith in Christ—the righteousness that comes from God on the basis of faith.” Faith places us “under grace”; it’s the first step in the establishment, or reestablishment, of relationship between man and God.If man is free he does not have to sin and so can overcome it with or without grace. That doesn’t mean he can be justified alone.
What problem do you have with Molinism, since you reject Aquinas and Banez?The Catholic Church calls free will which is natural free will, however free will cooperation with grace is the subject of the dogmas.
Catechism 406 … Pelagius held that man could, by the natural power of free will and without the necessary help of God’s grace, lead a morally good life …
Dogma of faith, from Trent:
814 Can. 4. If anyone shall say that man’s free will moved and aroused by God does not cooperate by assenting to God who rouses and calls, whereby it disposes and prepares itself to obtain the grace of justification, and that it cannot dissent, if it wishes, but that like something inanimate it does nothing at all and is merely in a passive state: let him be anathema [cf. n. 797].
A person that assents to the Catholic dogmas does not have to accept a particular logical explanation such as proposed in one of the several schools of Molinism.
Molinism admits:
- Efficacious grace includes the free consent of the will.
- God’ decree of bestowal of efficacious grace upon a man involves the free co-operation of man’s will.
- So, God must possess an infallible source of knowledge of the co-operation or resistance to grace.
No, we have no right to grace, which is union with God.But to truly overcome sin would mean to *be *in a state of justice, and such a state cannot be achieved without God, apart from union with Him, apart from grace. So St Paul, in Phil 3:9, would forsake his former so-called “righteousness” and pursue “that which is through faith in Christ—the righteousness that comes from God on the basis of faith.” Faith places us “under grace”; it’s the first step in the establishment, or reestablishment, of relationship between man and God.
Yes, this is true, and yet we cannot refrain from sin without it. We’re free not to sin, but will inevitably fail without sanctifying grace/relationship with God.No, we have no right to grace, which is union with God.
Yes, the Reformed position would mean that man is not free not to sin.406 The Church’s teaching on the transmission of original sin was articulated more precisely in the fifth century, especially under the impulse of St. Augustine’s reflections against Pelagianism, and in the sixteenth century, in opposition to the Protestant Reformation. Pelagius held that man could, by the natural power of free will and without the necessary help of God’s grace, lead a morally good life; he** thus **reduced the influence of Adam’s fault to bad example. The first Protestant reformers, on the contrary, taught that original sin has radically perverted man and destroyed his freedom; **they identified the sin inherited by each man with the tendency to evil (concupiscentia), which would be insurmountable. **The Church pronounced on the meaning of the data of Revelation on original sin especially at the second Council of Orange (529) and at the Council of Trent (1546).
Which is your Calvinist position as wellYes, the Reformed position would mean that man is not free not to sin.
To says inevitably fail means no free will. If it is up to a person, who is to say what is inevitable. Are you really ignorant of what free will is?Yes, this is true, and yet we cannot refrain from sin without it. We’re free not to sin, but will inevitably fail without sanctifying grace/relationship with God.
My position is that man is free to sin or not to sin but will fail unless justice is complete in him, because, “As long as freedom has not bound itself definitively to its ultimate good which is God, there is the possibility of choosing between good and evil, and thus of growing in perfection or of failing and sinning. This freedom characterizes properly human acts. It is the basis of praise or blame, merit or reproach.” CCC 1732Which is your Calvinist position as well
I have not rejected. Note also, that St. Thomas Aquinas is not represented by Thomism (Dominican). What school of Molinism are you thinking of?What problem do you have with Molinism, since you reject Aquinas and Banez?