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EIF5A
Guest
From the various “East/West” comparisons in this forum, both sides come up with arguments that seem equally valid (to my questioning Protestant mind).
How much of it is due to semantics? How much of it is due to the two sides describing the same idea but just from a different angle or describing in greater/lesser detail one aspect of said idea?
Is there anything in the East that contradicts the West, and vice-versa, that is not just due to linguistic limitations? (e.g., “The sky is green – No, the sky is shining emerald” vs “The sky is green – No, the sky contains the brilliance of ruby”.)
I really hope “in Christ there is no east or west”. (OK, so different context…)
How much of it is due to semantics? How much of it is due to the two sides describing the same idea but just from a different angle or describing in greater/lesser detail one aspect of said idea?
Is there anything in the East that contradicts the West, and vice-versa, that is not just due to linguistic limitations? (e.g., “The sky is green – No, the sky is shining emerald” vs “The sky is green – No, the sky contains the brilliance of ruby”.)
I really hope “in Christ there is no east or west”. (OK, so different context…)