differences in The Lord's Prayer

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samwise53

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This is my first post, and this is not keeping me up at night, but I’ve wondered why the Catholic version of The Lord’s Prayer ends without “For Thine is the Kingdom, the power, and the glory…” I’m assuming the Protestant ending was added on at some time?
 
If I remember correctly…the “end” is in many of the older manuscripts…and I want to say…the ending phrase was a note…

I’m not sure all Protestant Bibles have the end phrase except as a foot note…especially the RSV and those more modern versions which use older manuscripts…it’s not incorrect to use it…it’s a “variation” found in different manuscripts.
 
jonbhorton said:
The ending is not found in the earliest manuscripts. However, it is available in various permutations way, way before Protestantism.

Here are some reasons from various theological positions:

Non-Catholic:
warc.ch/where/21gc/bible/03.html

Catholic:

newadvent.org/cathen/09356a.htm

ourladyofsorrows.us/QotF/Doxology.htm
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Yes…those manuscripts compiled and preserved by the Catholic church has the ending…it’s not a “Protestant” ending…it’s ancient and most likely was part of a liturgical note on the Lord’s Prayer.
 
From what I understand that particular ending was found in some manuscripts of Matthews Gospels, Mt 6:9-13 rsvce, but not in others, and was not found in any of Lukes Gospels,Lk 11:2-4 rsvce. For that matter why don’t we recite Lukes version?
 
Ron_in_minden said:
From what I understand that particular ending was found in some manuscripts of Matthews Gospels, Mt 6:9-13 rsvce, but not in others, and was not found in any of Lukes Gospels,Lk 11:2-4 rsvce. For that matter why don’t we recite Lukes version?
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Exactly…why indeed?
 
Its a doxology recited to conclude the prayer. It dates from ancient times, possibly influence by the book of Chronicles, and first found, in part, in the Didache, an early compilation of Christian teachings.

Its generally not considered part of the prayer proper, but as others said, it may have been added as a footnote to copies of scripture by the scribes.

More information: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord%27s_Prayer#.22For_thine_is_the_kingdom.2C_and_the_power.2C_and_the_glory.2C_for_ever_and_ever._Amen.22
 
At my church, the Lord’s Prayer is recited and the Doxlogy is sung.
 
In Orthodoxy we end it with “For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, now and ever, and unto ages of ages. Amen”
 
Here’s how it goes at Sunday mass in the Catholic Church:

After the consecration of the eucharist:

Priest: “Let us pray with confidence in the words our Savior gave us”:

Priest and People: “Our Father, who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come; thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread; and forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those who trespass against us. And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil.”

Priest: “Deliver us, Lord, from every evil, and grant us peace in our day. In your mercy keep us free from sin and protect us from all anxiety as we wait in joyful hope for the coming of our Savior, Jesus Christ,”

People: "For the kingdom, the power, and the glory are yours, now and for ever."

We say it every Sunday.

Paul
 
I particularly like the explanation provided in the link from “jonbhorton”; i.e.,
ourladyofsorrows.us/QotF/Doxology.htm

From the link:
"when non-Catholics ask us why we make the “Our Father” shorter than their form, we should tell them that the added words which they use are not a part of the prayer as given by our Blessed Lord, but rather a pious addition which is ancient but not original. "

So the final words in the Protestant version; “for thine is the kingdom, the power, etc.” actually comes from Catholic Tradition as practiced as a doxology in the early Mass, centuries before the Protestant Reformation. 🙂
 
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