difficult question

[Princess_Abby]

Joan M:

And, to a poster below you - “There is no formula for what constitutes an appropriate amount of lapsed time between floreplay to ejaculation, as long as it is within his wife, vaginally.” - you surely are not suggesting that days or weeks can elapse? That would really be stretching it!

Jean–maybe we could use a little common sense in deciphering my meaning behind those words. Obviously I am speaking about a reasonable amount of time. I was also indicating that a husband is allowed to be stimulated outside of intercourse and simply enter into his wife, vaginally, and climax–there is no sin in that, as the Church does not stipulate that actual intercourse must go on and on, for it to be licit. In this case, the husband might do as I just described, then minimally enter into his wife to finish, so as to not cause her any physical pain. There is no sin in that.

MariaPatricia–I will pray for your health! Blessings to you and your husband.