B
Blue_Horizon
Guest
Recently a pilgrim to Fatima, I closely reflected on the associated prayers (there are 6 apparantly). I suddenly realised the theology of two of them seemed a bit strange.
Can someone perhaps explain if I have the following wrong somehow:
(1) The Angels Prayer:
“…By the infinite merits of the Sacred Heart of Jesus and the Immaculate Heart of Mary I beg the conversion of poor sinners.”
I am not aware that Mary’s perfect obedience earned “infinite merits” directly.
Obviously in aquiescing perfectly with the will of the Father she indirectly made possible the infinite merits earned by her Son. But much more than this is being said here.
(2) The Sacrifice Prayer:
“…in reparation for the offences committed against the Immaculate Heart of Mary…”
This appears tantamount to the worship of a god. While I certainly understand and accept the devotion it does appear singularly poorly articulated at a theolofgical level. I accept that Mary is greatly pained by sins against her Son and the Church (the Body of Christ) but surely she would want us to do reparation wrt these (ie Christ) and thus releive her suffering in that way (who would not want to relieve her suffering). It does seem way over the top.
Perhaps the problem is with the translation into English?
Can someone perhaps explain if I have the following wrong somehow:
(1) The Angels Prayer:
“…By the infinite merits of the Sacred Heart of Jesus and the Immaculate Heart of Mary I beg the conversion of poor sinners.”
I am not aware that Mary’s perfect obedience earned “infinite merits” directly.
Obviously in aquiescing perfectly with the will of the Father she indirectly made possible the infinite merits earned by her Son. But much more than this is being said here.
(2) The Sacrifice Prayer:
“…in reparation for the offences committed against the Immaculate Heart of Mary…”
This appears tantamount to the worship of a god. While I certainly understand and accept the devotion it does appear singularly poorly articulated at a theolofgical level. I accept that Mary is greatly pained by sins against her Son and the Church (the Body of Christ) but surely she would want us to do reparation wrt these (ie Christ) and thus releive her suffering in that way (who would not want to relieve her suffering). It does seem way over the top.
Perhaps the problem is with the translation into English?