Dipping the host in the wine a NO-NO?

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I disagree. Christ is completely present in both species, but the accidents (properties) of the species are not like each other. The potential for accidents with wine is far greater than with portions of bread. That’s another reason why the “traditional” form of bread is small, individual hosts: so that there will be as little accidental (no pun intended) fragmentation as possible.
Certainly wine will make a bigger mess than a dropped host but I still have a hard time seeing this as a valid reason for withholding the chalice - certainly not from a Biblical standpoint. After all, the Eastern Orthodox not only distribute in both kinds but even use bread rather than wafers.
I’m sure one of the reasons the Extraordinary Form of the Mass has such precise rubrics for the priests motions and gestures (especially after the consecration) is to prevent him from knocking over the chalice and spilling the Precious Blood (i.e. under the form of wine) all over the altar and the floor.
That is no doubt true - especially when one considers the vestments worn!

Again, thank you for your responses.
 
hmmm…learn something new everyday. Had to go do some reading about that one.

I will say for the record that I do not believe that salvation hangs on receiving in both kinds.
I think you missed exactly WHY the Utraquists believed that it was necessary for salvation. They felt that the instructions to “eat” and “drink” were to be accomplished in an Accidental way, that to fulfill the command we had to physically eat and physically drink.

The correct interpretation the one of the Church, that these command are fulfilled Substantially in the reception of a single species.

It is in that way, in your reference to physically eating and drinking, that you were heading towards the heresy.
However, as I meditate on this, it seems to me that the idea of withholding the chalice out of reverence for the precious blood of Christ while saying that both are present in either of the accidents is contradictory. If the precious blood of Christ is also present in the wafer, then why not withhold that as well? .
As Japhy pointed out the accidents of wine are more prone to…well…accidents. Spillage etc…

The species of wine cannot also be effectively stored in the tabernacle as the species of bread can, so greater care needs to be taken in estimating the volume of wine to be consecrated.

The number of vessels also comes into play. If there are too many vessels for the priest or deacon to purify (clean) in a timely manner the Vatican recommens that the species of wine not be offered.

There is also the fact that distribution of the species of wine is more time consuming than the distrubtion of species of bread, and often requres a greater use of extraordinary minister than would other be necessary.
 
I think you missed exactly WHY the Utraquists believed that it was necessary for salvation. They felt that the instructions to “eat” and “drink” were to be accomplished in an Accidental way, that to fulfill the command we had to physically eat and physically drink.

The correct interpretation the one of the Church, that these command are fulfilled Substantially in the reception of a single species.

It is in that way, in your reference to physically eating and drinking, that you were heading towards the heresy.
Perhaps so. I skimmed through the document but will go back and read it more closely.
As Japhy pointed out the accidents of wine are more prone to…well…accidents. Spillage etc…
The species of wine cannot also be effectively stored in the tabernacle as the species of bread can, so greater care needs to be taken in estimating the volume of wine to be consecrated.
The number of vessels also comes into play. If there are too many vessels for the priest or deacon to purify (clean) in a timely manner the Vatican recommens that the species of wine not be offered.
There is also the fact that distribution of the species of wine is more time consuming than the distrubtion of species of bread, and often requres a greater use of extraordinary minister than would other be necessary.
Of course, there is always this:

youtube.com/watch?v=Amh2vdeenkY :bigyikes:

which lends considerable weight to the argument of withholding the chalice… 😛
 
paperwight;5773981:
YES< this was at a Catholic Mass, I was at Mepkin Abbey. YES, I am catholic. I AM a convert, former Episcopalian. I used to dip in the Church of England, but I went to my first CHRISTMAS mass at the Cathedral, & the deacon or lay person saw me start to walk off w. my host towards the chalice I he barked at me & said, YOU WILL CONSUME THAT HOST N-O-W. After the service (I’m repeating myself…lol) I wanted to know what the big deal was. HE said that if you mix the HOST with the CHALICE, the HOST ceases to BE the host, because it is something pure. THe CHALICE is something pure. When you mix the 2, the one & the one are no longer what they were. THey’re tainted. THAT is what he said. SO, it’s been 2 years & change since then…I JUST came back from a retreat at Mepkin Abbey. A monastery. Where monks are. Catholic ones. The monks were dipping as were priests. I opened my eyes as wide as they’d go. SO, I didnt know if they just happened to be liberal there or what, and I’m trying to find a definitive answer or a RESOURCE I can use to look it up…CCC isn’t helping me much. THANKS.
He gave you the right instructions, but the wrong explanation. Intinction by the laity is absolutely forbidden, but the priest may do it, either for himself or for those he is communicating. Also, it is part of the Consecration, for him to drop part of the Host into the chalice - he does nothing wrong by following that part of the ritual action.

I don’t know the reason why lay intinction is forbidden, but we don’t wait for explanations before we obey. Our role is not to critique the explanation and then obey if it makes sense. Our role is just to do what we are being told to do.
 
Jason, I am having difficulty reading your posts, because you don’t break things into paragraphs (among other things).

The apostles at the Last Supper were, by the Lord’s words to “do this” (1 Cor 11:24-25), ordained priests of the New Covenant. And the priest celebrating Mass is bound to receive under both forms (i.e. bread and wine). Others are not so bound. In the first several centuries, hermits would reserve portions of the consecrated bread (but not the consecrated wine) to consume daily during the week until the next Divine Liturgy. On Good Friday, we still only receive under the form of bread alone. You’ll never see the Chalice at the Good Friday liturgy.

I would suggest you read the Church’s explanation for Communion under one kind from the Council of Trent, Session 21.

I’m sorry you felt that way, but they were not missing anything. Numerous saints were devoted the Eucharist, and receiving Holy Communion under the form of bread did not harm them or stunt their spiritual growth.

The problem I see is that you seem to believe that if a person DOES question the practice of Communion under one kind, they must come to the conclusion you have, that Communion must be received under both kinds or else it is “incomplete” somehow. You are putting your interpretation and understanding above that of the Church.

I spend a lot of time in Scripture now, and yet I am perfectly content to receive under one species or under both (though that’s rare for me, as I explained). My contentment is not ignorance or stupidity, but contentment in Christ and with the Church’s teaching.

Even those people who receive both Host and Chalice? 😉

I’m afraid I don’t understand your comparison.

I’ll toot my own horn here: I have a book (see below) that explains the liturgy of the Mass with a ton of Scriptural annotations (as well as quotes from the Catechism and Church Fathers). I wrote it to help people understand the Scriptural basis of the Mass, to help them overcome that common Catholic ignorance of Scripture and the liturgy. I want Catholics to understand their faith as much as they can, same as you.
1 Corinthians 11:23-34
23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus, the same night in which he was betrayed, took bread.

24 And giving thanks, broke, and said: Take ye, and eat: this is my body, which shall be delivered for you: this do for the commemoration of me.

25 In like manner also the chalice, after he had supped, saying: This chalice is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as often as you shall drink, for the commemoration of me.

26 For as often as you shall eat this bread, and drink the chalice, you shall shew the death of the Lord, until he come.

27 Therefore whosoever shall eat this bread, or drink the chalice of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and of the blood of the Lord.

***28 But let a man prove himself: and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of the chalice.

29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh judgment to himself, not discerning the body of the Lord.

30 Therefore are there many inform and weak among you, and many sleep. ***

31 But if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged.

32 But whilst we are judged, we are chastised by the Lord, that we be not condemned with this world.

33 Wherefore, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.

34 If any man be hungry, let him eat at home; that you come not together unto judgment. And the rest I will set in order, when I come.

I’m not sure how 1 Corinthians helps your case, actually, if you continue and read the rest of the text it kinda reiterates mine.
 
Because there really is no ‘other’ to walk past. Both the ciborium and the chalice contain the exact same thing, namely, the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of our Lord Jesus Christ.

The only difference, and I repeat here, the ONLY difference, is how it appears to our human senses.

One appears to be bread, the other appears to be wine, but they are, outside of those appearances, the EXACT SAME THING, or really, the exact same PERSON, full and complete.

Go back and read my post directly above yours.

You references Scripture, when Christ said “This is my body” did He mean that His body lacked blood, that it was dead flesh?

Or was is Christ Alive and His Body and Blood are in union?

You are treading closely to a heresy known as Utraquism.
Treading & asking questions are 2 different things buddy. If you want to slap a label on curiosity, be my guest. Anyhow, the question about dead flesh is ridiculous and disgusting and I’m not going to entertain it any further. Secondly, I disagree that the bread & wine were intended for the priests only because in John 6, he’s speaking to a CROWD…here you go… JOHN 6:48-57, as he is giving his bread of life discourse, to a crowd that was searching for Jesus & his Disciples. …he’s saying this to a crowd…not apostles, but a crowd…

48 I am the bread of life.

49 Your fathers did eat manna in the desert, and are dead.

50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven; that if any man eat of it, he may not die.

51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven.

52 If any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever; and the bread that I will give, is my flesh, for the life of the world.

53 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying: How can this man give us his flesh to eat?

***54 Then Jesus said to them: Amen, amen I say unto you: Except you eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, you shall not have life in you.

55 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath everlasting life: and I will raise him up in the last day.

56 For my flesh is meat indeed: and my blood is drink indeed.

57 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, abideth in me, and I in him.***
 
Now there are & were many cases where people witheld bread portions because it was blessed bread. I ate it sparingly because it was exactly that, blessed bread. There is nothing wrong with that. That’s all there was. Here we are. 21st century. And, John 6 didn’t happen? Wine (blood) becomes a priests only thing? Taking that & weighing against John 6, it smacks of contradiction. Yes, churches issue the wine to everyone along w. the host every sunday. I believe that is the right thing to do, but I also think that they are issuing both for the wrong reasons. The action is correct, but the thinking behind it needs to meditate on John 6. I am a firm believer and very staunch in telling people, yes, goofy…before the bible there was a church. Couldn’t be further from the truth, but if we know John 1:1, we know that “1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”

In the 1500’s, 1600’s, it was the catholics that could quote scripture & have it down cold & the protestants were struggling to keep up. I personally feel that in Catholicism as a whole, they have passed us in 4 1/2 centuries. I think we have fallen behind as far as knowledge of scripture. I said this in another thread, but I just started attending mass at a cathedral downtown & have been attending every mass since my first. I love the priest, & love the church & every week, they never cease to amaze. The priest actually told the congregation to read the epistle of James and Hebrews for NEXT sunday’s mass because the homily is going to stem from that. I have never heard a priest say, “I want you folks to read your scripture, read those 2 books for me, and if you want to read elsewhere, be my guest, but when you read the Word, do so PRAYERFULLY!” I loved it!!! It is something MANY catholics need to beef up on. They can rattle off the beatitudes & the Corporal Acts of Mercy, but couldn’t tell you which books contain the commandments. It is equally important. It’s a gripe of mine. I’ve only been in the church 2 years & after I have learned everything about the mass & history & culture, THIS one issue is the one that drives me insane.
 
I’m not sure how 1 Corinthians helps your case, actually, if you continue and read the rest of the text it kinda reiterates mine.
I was referring specifically to the command to “do this”. It was by those words in particular that the Lord made priests of the Apostles. The rest of 1 Corinthians is St. Paul’s (inspired) commentary on the matter. Anyway, you are putting your interpretation of the Scriptures over the Church’s interpretation of the same. The Church sees 1 Cor 11:26-29 (referring to drinking from the chalice) not being written by way of command, but by way of allowance.
 
Treading & asking questions are 2 different things buddy.
But you’re answering your own questions! And you didn’t ask a question at all (other than “are we paying attention”) in this post; rather, you stated your position, “answering” your own previous questions:
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Jason_1977:
THANK YOU…>THANK YOU…THANK YOU…Sammy Davis Junior has entered the bldg…THANK YOU!!!>…MY THOUGHTS EXACTLY!!! I find that yes, wholeness is in each, but YOU are absolutely correct. THANK YOU!!! I whole-heartedly agree with this. It makes the most sense!!! I cannot for the life of me see why we do one & walk past the other. … I have beef w. my own peeps about this. This is the only issue I have with my faith. Actually, not MY faith, but catholicism. That’s it. That’s all. Of all the things, that is the one. I have attended several churches that gave host only & never went there again. They were missing something from communion. That is how it felt!!!
I could be misreading you, but you seem to distinguish your faith from Catholicism in that underlined portion. Now, perhaps an explanation is in order. Concomitance (the presence of the WHOLE Christ under either species) is a matter of faith, not discipline. The decision to concede the Chalice to everyone is a matter of discipline, not faith. So you can disagree with the discipline (which is a prudential decision) without failing to hold the Catholic faith. BUT it is a matter of faith (not discipline) that one need not receive under both kinds to receive “full” or “whole” or “complete” Communion; it is opposed to the Catholic faith that Communion under only one species is less or inferior, or even worse, “illegal”.

I recommend you read this Catholic Encyclopedia entry on Communion under both kinds. Also worth reading is Session 13 of the Council of Constance (June 1415), an excerpt of which is:
Certain people, in some parts of the world, have rashly dared to assert that the Christian people ought to receive the holy sacrament of the Eucharist under the forms of both bread and wine. …] Moreover, just as this custom [of receiving the Eucharist under only one species] was sensibly introduced in order to avoid various dangers and scandals, so with similar or even greater reason was it possible to introduce and sensibly observe the custom that, although this sacrament was received by the faithful under both kinds in the early church, nevertheless later it was received under both kinds only by those confecting it, and by the laity only under the form of bread. For it should be very firmly believed, and in no way doubted, that the whole body and blood of Christ are truly contained under both the form of bread and the form of wine. Therefore, since this custom was introduced for good reasons by the church and holy fathers, and has been observed for a very long time, it should be held as a law which nobody may repudiate or alter at will without the church’s permission. To say that the observance of this custom or law is sacrilegious or illicit must be regarded as erroneous.
So you can disagree with the discipline, but you cannot believe that the custom itself is sacrilegious or illegal. It is not a custom that was created at Constance; the Council mentions the custom as already existing and observed for quite a while.
Anyhow, the question about dead flesh is ridiculous and disgusting and I’m not going to entertain it any further.
What is “ridiculous and disgusting” about it? Because he used the words “dead flesh”? It’s very convenient to avoid answering a question you don’t like. What makes that particular question out-of-bounds?

When Christ said, “This is my body,” was he or was he not referring to a living body of flesh and blood?
Secondly, I disagree that the bread & wine were intended for the priests only because in John 6, he’s speaking to a CROWD.
And as the Church noted in the Council of Trent Session 21, Chapter 1 – quoting, if you notice, the same book and chapter as you – that
Neither is it rightly inferred from that discourse contained in the sixth chapter of John that communion under both forms was enjoined by the Lord, notwithstanding the various interpretations of it by the holy Fathers and Doctors. For He who said: “Except you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you shall not have life in you,” also said: “He that eateth this bread shall live forever”; and He who said: “He that eateth my flesh and drinketh my blood hath life everlasting,” also said: “The bread that I will give is my flesh for the life of the world”; and lastly, He who said: “He that eateth my flesh and drinketh my blood, abideth in me and I in him,” said, nevertheless: “He that eateth this bread shall live forever.”
I would recommend you read Chapter 2 as well, which teaches that “in the dispensation of the sacraments, salva illorum substantia, the Church may, according to circumstances, times and places, determine or change whatever she may judge most expedient for the benefit of those receiving them or for the veneration of the sacraments; and this power has always been hers.”

I’m surprised this is the ONLY matter of the Church you take issue with. You’re not at all surprised by Baptism by sprinkling or pouring? You’re not at all surprised by infant Baptism? How about Confirmation?
 
Now there are & were many cases where people witheld bread portions because it was blessed bread. I ate it sparingly because it was exactly that, blessed bread. There is nothing wrong with that. That’s all there was.
I’m afraid I don’t know what you’re talking about there…
21st century. And, John 6 didn’t happen? Wine (blood) becomes a priests only thing?
No. It was not a “priests only thing”. It was, specifically, a only-the-priest-celebrating-Mass thing… but only as a matter of discipline.

Back in the 1950’s, when Communion was received on the tongue, the only person who received from his own hand was the priest celebrating Mass. If a priest happened to be in the congregation, when he came up to receive the Host, he didn’t get it placed in his hand, nor did he pluck a Host out of the ciborium himself; he received on the tongue just like everyone else.

The Council of Trent considering loosening the restrictions on Communion under both kinds, but left it to the judgment of the Pope, who decided against it at the time. At Vatican II, the issue was brought up again, and the Church said:
The dogmatic principles which were laid down by the Council of Trent remaining intact, communion under both kinds may be granted when the bishops think fit, not only to clerics and religious, but also to the laity, in cases to be determined by the Apostolic See, as, for instance, to the newly ordained in the Mass of their sacred ordination, to the newly professed in the Mass of their religious profession, and to the newly baptized in the Mass which follows their baptism.
Now, over the years, that ballooned into the situation we have today (in the US, at least), where every pastor can decide whether to offer both species or not.

Anyway, as Vatican II said, concession of the Chalice to the laity should be permitted on occasion. It is not a “priest only” thing. But it is not necessary for the laity, nor for any priest other than the one celebrating the Mass (i.e. offering the sacrifice).
Yes, churches issue the wine to everyone along w. the host every sunday. I believe that is the right thing to do, but I also think that they are issuing both for the wrong reasons. The action is correct, but the thinking behind it needs to meditate on John 6.
Please tell us, what are these “wrong reasons” that the Church has? What are the “right reasons” according to your interpretation of Scripture, specifically John 6.

If you are of the opinion that you must receive both the “bread” and the “wine” to be fulfilling Jesus’ command, in order for your Communion to be a proper one, in order to attain to eternal life, that is your opinion, but it is not the Church’s teaching, and the Church has said very plainly that your opinion is wrong.

While some Catholics might not be well-versed in Scripture, the Magisterium of the Church is – not that that makes up for the ignorance of the laity – and they took Scripture into account when they made their decisions regarding Communion under both kinds.
 
Certainly wine will make a bigger mess than a dropped host but I still have a hard time seeing this as a valid reason for withholding the chalice - .
I agree. It’s not (and the Church doesn’t teach that it is a valid reason).
 
I think you missed exactly WHY the Utraquists believed that it was necessary for salvation. They felt that the instructions to “eat” and “drink” were to be accomplished in an Accidental way, that to fulfill the command we had to physically eat and physically drink.

The correct interpretation the one of the Church, that these command are fulfilled Substantially in the reception of a single species.

It is in that way, in your reference to physically eating and drinking, that you were heading towards the heresy.

As Japhy pointed out the accidents of wine are more prone to…well…accidents. Spillage etc…

The species of wine cannot also be effectively stored in the tabernacle as the species of bread can, so greater care needs to be taken in estimating the volume of wine to be consecrated.

The number of vessels also comes into play. If there are too many vessels for the priest or deacon to purify (clean) in a timely manner the Vatican recommens that the species of wine not be offered.

There is also the fact that distribution of the species of wine is more time consuming than the distrubtion of species of bread, and often requres a greater use of extraordinary minister than would other be necessary.
For those in the U.S., does it make any difference that the General Instruction of the Roman Missal, as approved by the Vatican, notes regarding communion under both kinds:
  1. Holy Communion has a fuller form as a sign when it is distributed under both kinds. For in this form the sign of the eucharistic banquet is more clearly evident and clear expression is given to the divine will by which the new and eternal Covenant is ratified in the Blood of the Lord, as also the relationship between the Eucharistic banquet and the eschatological banquet in the Father’s Kingdom.
(And for those of you not in the U.S., what does your GIRM say in para 281?)
 
I was referring specifically to the command to “do this”. It was by those words in particular that the Lord made priests of the Apostles. The rest of 1 Corinthians is St. Paul’s (inspired) commentary on the matter. Anyway, you are putting your interpretation of the Scriptures over the Church’s interpretation of the same. The Church sees 1 Cor 11:26-29 (referring to drinking from the chalice) not being written by way of command, but by way of allowance.
and what about John 6? When Jesus is talking to the crowd of people. Not the apostles, but the crowd of people LOOKING for Jesus & his apostles…I highly recommend checking out my last couple posts. Or read into John 6. He tells the CROWD of average Joe’s to eat & drink, to paraphrase plainly… That’s great about 1 corinthians & all, but John 6 kinda ties it all together nicely. Read it. Get beck to me w. your thoughts 😉
 
But you’re answering your own questions! And you didn’t ask a question at all (other than “are we paying attention”) in this post; rather, you stated your position, “answering” your own previous questions:

I could be misreading you, but you seem to distinguish your faith from Catholicism in that underlined portion. Now, perhaps an explanation is in order. Concomitance (the presence of the WHOLE Christ under either species) is a matter of faith, not discipline. The decision to concede the Chalice to everyone is a matter of discipline, not faith. So you can disagree with the discipline (which is a prudential decision) without failing to hold the Catholic faith. BUT it is a matter of faith (not discipline) that one need not receive under both kinds to receive “full” or “whole” or “complete” Communion; it is opposed to the Catholic faith that Communion under only one species is less or inferior, or even worse, “illegal”.

I recommend you read this Catholic Encyclopedia entry on Communion under both kinds. Also worth reading is Session 13 of the Council of Constance (June 1415), an excerpt of which is:
Certain people, in some parts of the world, have rashly dared to assert that the Christian people ought to receive the holy sacrament of the Eucharist under the forms of both bread and wine. …] Moreover, just as this custom [of receiving the Eucharist under only one species] was sensibly introduced in order to avoid various dangers and scandals, so with similar or even greater reason was it possible to introduce and sensibly observe the custom that, although this sacrament was received by the faithful under both kinds in the early church, nevertheless later it was received under both kinds only by those confecting it, and by the laity only under the form of bread. For it should be very firmly believed, and in no way doubted, that the whole body and blood of Christ are truly contained under both the form of bread and the form of wine. Therefore, since this custom was introduced for good reasons by the church and holy fathers, and has been observed for a very long time, it should be held as a law which nobody may repudiate or alter at will without the church’s permission. To say that the observance of this custom or law is sacrilegious or illicit must be regarded as erroneous.
So you can disagree with the discipline, but you cannot believe that the custom itself is sacrilegious or illegal. It is not a custom that was created at Constance; the Council mentions the custom as already existing and observed for quite a while.

What is “ridiculous and disgusting” about it? Because he used the words “dead flesh”? It’s very convenient to avoid answering a question you don’t like. What makes that particular question out-of-bounds?

When Christ said, “This is my body,” was he or was he not referring to a living body of flesh and blood?

And as the Church noted in the Council of Trent Session 21, Chapter 1 – quoting, if you notice, the same book and chapter as you – that
Neither is it rightly inferred from that discourse contained in the sixth chapter of John that communion under both forms was enjoined by the Lord, notwithstanding the various interpretations of it by the holy Fathers and Doctors. For He who said: “Except you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you shall not have life in you,” also said: “He that eateth this bread shall live forever”; and He who said: “He that eateth my flesh and drinketh my blood hath life everlasting,” also said: “The bread that I will give is my flesh for the life of the world”; and lastly, He who said: “He that eateth my flesh and drinketh my blood, abideth in me and I in him,” said, nevertheless: “He that eateth this bread shall live forever.”
I would recommend you read Chapter 2 as well, which teaches that “in the dispensation of the sacraments, salva illorum substantia, the Church may, according to circumstances, times and places, determine or change whatever she may judge most expedient for the benefit of those receiving them or for the veneration of the sacraments; and this power has always been hers.”

I’m surprised this is the ONLY matter of the Church you take issue with. You’re not at all surprised by Baptism by sprinkling or pouring? You’re not at all surprised by infant Baptism? How about Confirmation?
Dude, I’m former Episcopalian, not baptist, LOL! YES it’s the ONLY problem I have. That information was very informative. I still think I SEE JESUS is happening here. selective scripture for selective teaching & selective practice. It drives me nutz. He said this last, no, now he said that last…I mean, honestly…

I can see how wine could’ve been poisoned in the old days, etc…maybe some sheisty things happened then that I’m not or anyone for that matter is aware of. I’m only scripture heavy because I think I have St. Jerome syndrome, LOL!!! I have a dozen bibles, mostly Protestant, but the 3 I mainly use are my NAB for my personal reading, the Douay Rheims & 1611 KJV for scripture comparison. I am addicted to research, can you believe it? I think the church might be mistaken about the wine. If it can let go of LIMBO, lol, then it can say, well, maybe we should take a look at John 6. John 2 I’ll look at now…aaaaaaaaand struggling with how the wedding & keeping the flow of wine going has anything to do with the sanctity of Body & Blood. I’m lost there. Anyway,
 
For those in the U.S., does it make any difference that the General Instruction of the Roman Missal, as approved by the Vatican, notes regarding communion under both kinds:

The English is a decent translation of the Latin.

It’s followed by GIRM 282:
Sacred pastors should take care to ensure that the faithful who participate in the rite or are present at it are as fully aware as possible of the Catholic teaching on the form of Holy Communion as set forth by the Ecumenical Council of Trent. Above all, they should instruct the Christian faithful that the Catholic faith teaches that Christ, whole and entire, and the true Sacrament, is received even under only one species, and consequently that as far as the effects are concerned, those who receive under only one species are not deprived of any of the grace that is necessary for salvation.

They are to teach, furthermore, that the Church, in her stewardship of the Sacraments, has the power to set forth or alter whatever provisions, apart from the substance of the Sacraments, that she judges to be most conducive to the veneration of the Sacraments and the well-being of the recipients, in view of changing conditions, times, and places. At the same time, the faithful should be encouraged to seek to participate more eagerly in this sacred rite, by which the sign of the Eucharistic banquet is made more fully evident.
GIRM 283 (in the US version) directs the reader to the US Norms on Distribution of Communion.

It’s really all quite simple. The Church allows for Communion to be offered under both species, but it is not necessary for the laity to receive under both species. It is not a matter of more or less grace, or a complete or incomplete Communion; it is simply a matter of making the sign more evident to a person, of a more complete form (not substance!), of a clearer expression (not reality!).
 
selective scripture for selective teaching & selective practice.
Yes, the Church is being deliberately deceptive and selective. You caught her red-handed!
I think the church might be mistaken about the wine.
And I don’t. The issues you raise, the Church has answered. I trust the Church’s interpretation and judgment and decision-making. It is not necessary for our salvation to receive Holy Communion under both species, and it is not illicit or wrong not to receive under both kinds.
struggling with how the wedding & keeping the flow of wine going has anything to do with the sanctity of Body & Blood.
Where was the wedding of Cana brought up in our conversation?

I really need to get to bed.
 
Originally Posted by Stephen3970
Certainly wine will make a bigger mess than a dropped host but I still have a hard time seeing this as a valid reason for withholding the chalice - .
I agree. It’s not (and the Church doesn’t teach that it is a valid reason).
The Church certainly teaches that it is a valid reason. See the GIRM #283

The Diocesan Bishop is also given the faculty to permit Communion under both kinds whenever it may seem appropriate to the priest to whom, as its own shepherd, a community has been entrusted, provided that the faithful have been well instructed and there is no danger of profanation of the Sacrament or of the rite’s becoming difficult because of the large number of participants or some other reason.

Danger of the chalice spilling is most certainly a reason not to distribute the Precious Blood–although this is not a danger that presents itself in most ordinary circumstances.
 
I’m afraid I don’t know what you’re talking about there…

No. It was not a “priests only thing”. It was, specifically, a only-the-priest-celebrating-Mass thing… but only as a matter of discipline.

Back in the 1950’s, when Communion was received on the tongue, the only person who received from his own hand was the priest celebrating Mass. If a priest happened to be in the congregation, when he came up to receive the Host, he didn’t get it placed in his hand, nor did he pluck a Host out of the ciborium himself; he received on the tongue just like everyone else.

The Council of Trent considering loosening the restrictions on Communion under both kinds, but left it to the judgment of the Pope, who decided against it at the time. At Vatican II, the issue was brought up again, and the Church said:
The dogmatic principles which were laid down by the Council of Trent remaining intact, communion under both kinds may be granted when the bishops think fit, not only to clerics and religious, but also to the laity, in cases to be determined by the Apostolic See, as, for instance, to the newly ordained in the Mass of their sacred ordination, to the newly professed in the Mass of their religious profession, and to the newly baptized in the Mass which follows their baptism.
Now, over the years, that ballooned into the situation we have today (in the US, at least), where every pastor can decide whether to offer both species or not.

Anyway, as Vatican II said, concession of the Chalice to the laity should be permitted on occasion. It is not a “priest only” thing. But it is not necessary for the laity, nor for any priest other than the one celebrating the Mass (i.e. offering the sacrifice).

Please tell us, what are these “wrong reasons” that the Church has? What are the “right reasons” according to your interpretation of Scripture, specifically John 6.

If you are of the opinion that you must receive both the “bread” and the “wine” to be fulfilling Jesus’ command, in order for your Communion to be a proper one, in order to attain to eternal life, that is your opinion, but it is not the Church’s teaching, and the Church has said very plainly that your opinion is wrong.

While some Catholics might not be well-versed in Scripture, the Magisterium of the Church is – not that that makes up for the ignorance of the laity – and they took Scripture into account when they made their decisions regarding Communion under both kinds.
LOVE TO…The blessed bread thing. SOMETIMES a military chaplain doesn’t have HOSTS with him when going from compound to compound in theater, as was the case in Kuwait when I was there this past year. SO, he blessed bread. There were 5 catholics among us. THAT was our "HOSTS"we broke it & had a little prayer & had pieces of it each day because there are only 2 catholic chaplains in the country. SO we had a lay person in our unit do the little lay mass. The tabernacle we had was a parts locker that was locked and place way up high next to the exit sign on the ceiling (which was dim in light, but at night shown as bright as a candle in the dark, and such was out tabernacle light. It was always on, even when we lost power…we had to improvise, but yes, there it was. It was faith, not discipline, as you like. Kuwait is a dry country, so rather than cheapen everything with sparking grape juice, we CHOSE not to do that KNOWING that the fullness was in the bread alone. NOW< I know it sounds like I’m contradicting myself & if I was a housefly, I’d be in the room w. you seeing you nodding your head, lol, but we did feel that something was missing & we almost made a chalice out of a small salad bowl & a salt shaker. There was no wine in the country, so it was moot. THAT is what I’m talking about. When there is nothing else, then bread will suffice. We never made it to mass the entire time we were in country, but we got bread blessed. That’s what we did. We had 1 lay person & we had our short little mass service.

I say wrong reasons due to the fact that the last supper took place w. the apostles & that is the basis for priests to partake in the chalice only. John 6 kinda goes against that. People & Priests. (that thinking would be the right reasons in my humble interpretation & opinion, based on the text of BOTH john 6 & your 1 corinthians.)

As far as bread & wine being a full communion, why would Jesus bother even talking about the wine & blood if that were the case? Clearly it has significance. He didn’t waste his time with idle chatter, everything he said had meaning & purpose. What he said in John 6, I believe, as well as 1Cor. If you dont have one, then okay, you can make do, but if you have the ability to do it right, then ya should.
 
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