Dispensations

[suissemissed]

I know that the Church can dispense from ecclesiastical law, such as the law that a Catholic may only receive Communion twice in one day. But what is the justification for dispensations from apostolic laws found in Scripture? The best example would be the Church’s ability to dispense a Catholic from the normal marriage requirements so that they could marry a non-baptised person.

The answer I’ve heard so far is that the bishops, being the successors of the apostles, can dispense from laws in individual cases that the apostles themselves set up. But they can’t dispense from divine laws (ones the Christ set up Himself, for instance, like divorce). Is this accurate?

 

[Gorgias]

I know that the Church can dispense from ecclesiastical law, such as the law that a Catholic may only receive Communion twice in one day. But what is the justification for dispensations from apostolic laws found in Scripture? The best example would be the Church’s ability to dispense a Catholic from the normal marriage requirements so that they could marry a non-baptised person.

Umm… where in Scripture does it command that Christians marry only Christians?

 

[JerryZ]

I do not believe that you can assert that you can find an express prohibition against marrying someone outside the Church. There is the passage that St. Paul “admonishes” that such could bring “univen yokes” to one’s life. But he did not condemn the practice.

Because the Church recognonizes the importance of the teachings it has deemed to make it binding on Catholics by codifing it within Canon Law.
But that article being not one affecting Faith and Morals it can be dispensed with by the Bishop.

Put it this way St. Paul probably wrote the letter precisely because someone asked the question that WANTED to marry someone outside the faith.
He did NOT prohibit doing so.
So basically anything that is not part of the deposit of faith “Faith and Morals” but deals with “Disciplines” can be granted a dispensation.
Some dispensations can only be granted by the Pope.
Because he is the law (Canon law) giver.
Like for example ordaining a married person priest. The actual ordination is carried out by the Bishop that has jurisdiction but the dispensation came from the Pope.

Hope this helps

Peace

 

[DavidFilmer]

The answer I’ve heard so far is that the bishops, being the successors of the apostles, can dispense from laws in individual cases that the apostles themselves set up. But they can’t dispense from divine laws (ones the Christ set up Himself, for instance, like divorce). Is this accurate?

This is correct. The Church has manmade rules (laws) and God-made rules (doctrine).

Bishops make the man-made rules, and they have the authority to dispense them (since the authority of these rules comes from the bishops in the first place). It’s the same principle that a parent can make an exception to a child’s bedtime for a special occasion.

Our Bishop once granted a dispensation from Friday abstinence to a large annual St. Patrick’s Day Corned-Beef & Cabbage event when, one year, St. Pat’s day fell on a Friday in Lent. This dispensation applied only to people at the event while the event was in progress. So the terms of dispensations can be very flexible.

Bishops have no authority to dispense divine law.