V
VeritasLuxMea
Guest
I’m speaking only of sexual desire/attraction within marriage.
Without going into details, I think we all have an idea what an extreme lust would be like. However, we also know that the holiest couple (Joseph and Mary) did not have relations. So I wonder if there’s a “perfect” model for marital relations out there.
Anyway, I got to thinking. Sexual attraction/desire within marriage must be a good thing, since God made it absolutely 100% necessary to achieve an even greater thing (marital union and pro-creation).
This definitely jives with what my conscience indicates to me, which is that it’s a good thing for a husband to desire a wife and vice versa. But where do you draw the line in the middle? How do you hash out the “gray” areas?
I guess the problem, for me, comes from a bit of (seemingly natural) compartmentalization. I love my spouse, cherish her, we are unified in our values, etc. but in the actual moment of arousal, I don’t see how that kind of abstraction alone can (forgive me for being blunt) cause an erection.
The literature that I’ve read speaks of objectification and such. So if I was going to go the complete opposite route, I would think it sounds like you are supposed to sexually desire the platonic concept of your spouse. However arousal appears to occur on a baser level… at the very least, part of it appears to be similar to a state of hunger or thirst.
My love for her makes me want to spend an eternity with her, for her to gain an eternity (for her soul), that kind of thing. It doesn’t, again forgive me for being blunt, “turn me on.” What actually does “turn me on” is, at least in large part, her physical form - the desire to become one in flesh - the beauty of her form, which is no doubt enhanced by the Sacrament (no one could find her as beautiful as I do.)
So here is where I arrive at my confused destination: sex is a physical endeavor, arousal is largely related to the physical form, and yet when I think of an appreciation for the physical form leading to arousal, that certainly sounds close to the dictionary definition of ‘objectification.’
So clue me in with the plain dumb English that I speak (and not scholarly musings, if possible) as to how to separate lust from healthy sexual interest/desire within marriage?
Without going into details, I think we all have an idea what an extreme lust would be like. However, we also know that the holiest couple (Joseph and Mary) did not have relations. So I wonder if there’s a “perfect” model for marital relations out there.
Anyway, I got to thinking. Sexual attraction/desire within marriage must be a good thing, since God made it absolutely 100% necessary to achieve an even greater thing (marital union and pro-creation).
This definitely jives with what my conscience indicates to me, which is that it’s a good thing for a husband to desire a wife and vice versa. But where do you draw the line in the middle? How do you hash out the “gray” areas?
I guess the problem, for me, comes from a bit of (seemingly natural) compartmentalization. I love my spouse, cherish her, we are unified in our values, etc. but in the actual moment of arousal, I don’t see how that kind of abstraction alone can (forgive me for being blunt) cause an erection.
The literature that I’ve read speaks of objectification and such. So if I was going to go the complete opposite route, I would think it sounds like you are supposed to sexually desire the platonic concept of your spouse. However arousal appears to occur on a baser level… at the very least, part of it appears to be similar to a state of hunger or thirst.
My love for her makes me want to spend an eternity with her, for her to gain an eternity (for her soul), that kind of thing. It doesn’t, again forgive me for being blunt, “turn me on.” What actually does “turn me on” is, at least in large part, her physical form - the desire to become one in flesh - the beauty of her form, which is no doubt enhanced by the Sacrament (no one could find her as beautiful as I do.)
So here is where I arrive at my confused destination: sex is a physical endeavor, arousal is largely related to the physical form, and yet when I think of an appreciation for the physical form leading to arousal, that certainly sounds close to the dictionary definition of ‘objectification.’
So clue me in with the plain dumb English that I speak (and not scholarly musings, if possible) as to how to separate lust from healthy sexual interest/desire within marriage?