To be clear, AC 34 does not cite the parable of the wise and faithful servant. I don’t think that was what you meant to imply, but I found your words somewhat misleading (unintentionally, I’m sure).
AC 34 is based on Christ’s words is what I meant. He stated he would set one servant over His household (singular), and that this servant (or, rather, the office) would exist until He returns. AC 34 tells us that bishops must recognize this head, and do nothing that affects the plenary Church without his consent, just as the head is bound to act in consensus with his brother bishops…
In any case, I don’t think the parable is obviously about the structure of the Church. It does seem to be about leaders in the Church (after all, in Luke, he gives the parable in response to Peter’s question “are you saying these things for our benefit or everyone else’s?”
Does not having leaders define the structure of the Church? How do you logically separate the two concepts? The Apostolic Churches are not like most Protestants, who give the primacy to individual interpretation of the Bible.
but I don’t think it is incoherent to see the head servant in the metaphor as anyone having a position of authority in Christ’s Church
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Exactly. AC 34 applies to all levels of the hierarchy - local, metropolitan, patriarchal, and universal --. ALL levels,
including the universal level. At each level, there is a visible head, a principle of unity.
without it implying anything about whether there would be a perpetual, universal office. I think you’re reading more into it than can be concluded from it
That does not make sense. The parable states that the head servant will be around when the Master returns. You can interpret the head servant as applying to anyone in a position of being head (priest for local parish, bishop for diocese, Metropolitan for metropolitan see, patriarch for patriarchate, pope for universal Church). Please explain the logic in stating the principle of headship will continue on all levels, EXCEPT the universal level.
As for AC34 applying universally, I have no problem with that one way or another. The question is still whether a universal primacy was divinely established or an historical development like the regional primacies.
Did the post-apostolic Church institute a novelty not previously approved by her Master? Where did the idea of having a head bishop (or, head servant) come from? Did it come from Christ - in other words, does Christ himself say he would set a head servant over His household, and that this head servant would exist when He returns? Yes.
Of course it is, but that doesn’t mean Cyprian was at all concerned in De Unitate with those primacies. As we both recognize, his concern was schism from the local bishop.
The schism of the Novatians was affecting the entire North African Church, not just a local Church. Can you please explain why St. Cyprian would only be concerned about the unity of the local Church, instead of the unity of the entire North African Church?
Again, while I’m not convinced that the paradigm of EE is incoherent,
EE is not incoherent at all. In fact, it is the principle by which the Catholic Church operates. It was the Council of Trent that affirmed that the Eucharist is the preeminent sign of unity of and for the Church. Eucharistic Ecclesiology has been an explicit part of the Catholic Church’s ecclesiology LOOOOONG before the EO coined the term in the early 20th century. What High Petrine advocates contest about EE is the understanding given to it by SOME EO, who claim it means that the local Church is so self-sufficient that there is no necessity of communion with any other Church (or, congruently, other orthodox bishops).
No, I don’t think it does. It doesn’t preclude bishops having the keys, but it doesn’t follow that the other bishops must have the keys as well.
The shared Sacred Tradition of the Catholic and Orthodox Churches teach that it does mean the other bishops have the keys as well. I would just submit to that teaching.
It isn’t VI decrees which are my objection here. Was Jesus establishing Peter’s primacy in Matthew 16:18? Yes. Was this office of primacy the office of the Pope? Yes, according to Catholicism. How, then, can it also be about the establishment of the episcopacy?
The giving of the keys is intimately connected with any/all authority in the Church - the authority to bind and loose, to forgive sins, to govern, to teach, to sanctify, to have episcopal primacy (on all levels). I don’t understand how one can question that the giving of the keys to the Church designates not just the establishment of the papacy, but the establishment of the whole College.
Blessings,
Marduk