DIVINE institution of the Primacy

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The incarnational principle is about God revealing Himself and acting through His creation. I confess my surprise that an Orthodox Christian does not know this basic definition.

This is a sincere question - does Eastern Orthodox catechesis in English-speaking countries teach about the incarnational principle, or perhaps teach about it by another term?

Blessings,
Marduk
Orthodoxy (and I believe the west too) teaches the Incarnation, which refers to the Son, who is not created. There is of course a derivative sense in which God does reveal himself and act through creation, but it is secondary to the Incarnation. I am not aware of an “incarnational principle” other than the Incarnation itself.
 
Orthodoxy (and I believe the west too) teaches the Incarnation, which refers to the Son, who is not created. There is of course a derivative sense in which God does reveal himself and act through creation, but it is secondary to the Incarnation. I am not aware of an “incarnational principle” other than the Incarnation itself.
Let me expound a little. I didn’t mean to be dismissive. Of course Orthodoxy teaches, as does the west, that the Incarnated Christ “spreads” Himself (for lack of a better word) into various channels of grace (God’s energies) for the salvation of us humans. The sacraments, the priesthood, lay ministries, the Church itself as the Body of Christ. This is all done, as is the Incarnation itself, for the purpose of Theosis, the assumption of us into the life of God through Christ. If that is what you mean by “the incarnational principle”, that is certainly taught in Orthodoxy.
 
Baltimore Catechism No. 3

Q. 495. Who is the invisible Head of the Church?

A. Jesus Christ is the invisible Head of the Church.
Q. 496. Who is the visible Head of the Church?
A. Our Holy Father the Pope, the Bishop of Rome, is the Vicar of Christ on earth and the visible Head of the Church.
Q. 497. What does “vicar” mean?
A. Vicar is a name used in the Church to designate a person who acts in the name and authority of another. Thus a Vicar Apostolic is one who acts in the name of the Pope, and a Vicar General is one who acts in the name of the bishop.

Catechism of the Catholic Church

1560
As Christ’s vicar, each bishop has the pastoral care of the particular Church entrusted to him, but at the same time he bears collegially with all his brothers in the episcopacy the solicitude for all the Churches: "Though each bishop is the lawful pastor only of the portion of the flock entrusted to his care, as a legitimate successor of the apostles he is, by divine institution and precept, responsible with the other bishops for the apostolic mission of the Church."41

1778 Conscience is a judgment of reason whereby the human person recognizes the moral quality of a concrete act that he is going to perform, is in the process of performing, or has already completed. In all he says and does, man is obliged to follow faithfully what he knows to be just and right. It is by the judgment of his conscience that man perceives and recognizes the prescriptions of the divine law:

Conscience is a law of the mind; yet [Christians] would not grant that it is nothing more; I mean that it was not a dictate, nor conveyed the notion of responsibility, of duty, of a threat and a promise. . . . [Conscience] is a messenger of him, who, both in nature and in grace, speaks to us behind a veil, and teaches and rules us by his representatives. Conscience is the aboriginal Vicar of Christ.50
882 The Pope, Bishop of Rome and Peter’s successor, "is the perpetual and visible source and foundation of the unity both of the bishops and of the whole company of the faithful."402 "For the Roman Pontiff, by reason of his office as Vicar of Christ, and as pastor of the entire Church has full, supreme, and universal power over the whole Church, a power which he can always exercise unhindered."403
 
Baltimore Catechism No. 3

Q. 495. Who is the invisible Head of the Church?

A. Jesus Christ is the invisible Head of the Church.
Q. 496. Who is the visible Head of the Church?
A. Our Holy Father the Pope, the Bishop of Rome, is the Vicar of Christ on earth and the visible Head of the Church.
Q. 497. What does “vicar” mean?
A. Vicar is a name used in the Church to designate a person who acts in the name and authority of another. Thus a Vicar Apostolic is one who acts in the name of the Pope, and a Vicar General is one who acts in the name of the bishop.
And where in scripture does Christ appoint a “visible Head of the Church”? He appoints the Apostles as His representatives and “shepherds” and arguably he appoints Peter (and arguably his successors) as a “Chief Shepherd” in Luke, but being a “Chief Shepherd” is not the same as being a visible “Head of the Church” with “full, supreme and universal authority over the whole Church”.
 
And where in scripture does Christ appoint a “visible Head of the Church”? He appoints the Apostles as His representatives and “shepherds” and arguably he appoints Peter (and arguably his successors) as a “Chief Shepherd” in Luke, but being a “Chief Shepherd” is not the same as being a visible “Head of the Church” with “full, supreme and universal authority over the whole Church”.
Pastor Aeternus (Vatican I) gives these references from the Bible, too much to post here:

**Chapter 1: On the institution of the apostolic primacy in blessed Peter
**42 Jn 1, 42.
43 Mt 16, 16 19.
44 Jn 21, 15-17.

**Chapter 2: On the permanence of the primacy of blessed Peter in the Roman pontiffs
**45 See Mt 7, 25; Lk 6, 48.

**Chapter 3: On the power and character of the primacy of the Roman Pontiff
**50 See Jn 10, 16.

Chapter 4: On the infallible teaching authority of the Roman Pontiff
55 Mt 16, 18.
60 Lk 22, 32.

http://www.ewtn.com/faith/teachings/papae1.htm
 
I want to refresh this discussion, simply because it is very interesting to me.

I wanted to highlight the fact that we should limit the amount of development of the Papacy in post-apostolic times.

For instance, if when Jesus told Peter that he was the rock of the Church and that he would hold the keys to the kingdom of heaven the apostles did not understand what he was saying, then we do not have grounds to use this verse as a justification for the modern day papacy.

For example, Stephen Ray does a good job of providing an apologetic for the historical evidence of the papacy, and he does so by spending pages and pages on how Matthrew 16 means, and what the “rock” means, and what the “keys” means and what “binding and loosing means” and how it necessitates “succession”,etc,etc and basically he is finding everything that is in the papacy now was stated by Jesus then.

But it forces the question, well if Jesus really did intend to mean what Stephen Ray says Jesus meant, then why did not the apostles understand this? For instance, James is the Bishop of Jerusalem, not any of the 12 apostles??? Or why did none of Paul’s letters reveal a papacy or an indestructible perpetual office of God’s shepherd with Peter’s successor? Paul should have mentioned this to Timothy because he was admonishing Timothy to keep the faith, but why omit the papacy?
 
I want to refresh this discussion, simply because it is very interesting to me.

I wanted to highlight the fact that we should limit the amount of development of the Papacy in post-apostolic times.

For instance, if when Jesus told Peter that he was the rock of the Church and that he would hold the keys to the kingdom of heaven the apostles did not understand what he was saying, then we do not have grounds to use this verse as a justification for the modern day papacy.

For example, Stephen Ray does a good job of providing an apologetic for the historical evidence of the papacy, and he does so by spending pages and pages on how Matthrew 16 means, and what the “rock” means, and what the “keys” means and what “binding and loosing means” and how it necessitates “succession”,etc,etc and basically he is finding everything that is in the papacy now was stated by Jesus then.
Personally, I do not find the purely scriptural case for the papacy as compelling as some find it. Personally, I do think it is clear that Peter holds a place of primacy among the Apostles - the nature of that primacy is another question, though. But, as far as showing compellingly that this primacy was an office intended by God to be perpetual, I don’t think so. That being said, if I had only scripture and reason to judge by, I think I might have to side with the Papacy as the most plausible position - but, we are not limited to scripture and reason, as we also have history and the Church Fathers and their interpretation of matters.
But it forces the question, well if Jesus really did intend to mean what Stephen Ray says Jesus meant, then why did not the apostles understand this? For instance, James is the Bishop of Jerusalem, not any of the 12 apostles???
Well, I’m not sure that I see how that touches upon the question of Peter’s primacy or the papacy. In any case the Apostles had a higher and unique position than any others in the Church, so if there were some reason none of them held the position James did in Jerusalem, then that reason answers for all of them, including Peter. I’m sure someone else here is more informed about James as bishop of Jerusalem, and so on.
Incidentally, we’ve already quoted from John Chrysostom who asked why Peter did not hold the seat of Jerusalem. His response is that whereas James was to be teacher of Jerusalem, Peter was to be teacher of the universe (although, I believe he elsewhere calls other Apostles teachers of the universe as well).
Or why did none of Paul’s letters reveal a papacy or an indestructible perpetual office of God’s shepherd with Peter’s successor? Paul should have mentioned this to Timothy because he was admonishing Timothy to keep the faith, but why omit the papacy?
I’m not particularly bothered by such an omission. I don’t see the epistles as a Catechism, meant to systematically lay out all major points of the faith. The fact that someone is silent on something does not mean they did not believe it. It all depends on the context, the purpose for which they were writing and the points they wished to get across, what truths it could be assumed there was no need to mention, etc.
 
I received the following request from a member:

"**It seems pretty obvious that the Bishop of Rome held a primacy, I think even a prime authority, in the Church (and as far as the Absolute/High Petrinism question, while I can’t say I’m completely convinced yet, I think there’s a good case for it and I lean towards it). However, I’m not sure I see sufficient evidence from the early Church that this primacy was a result of divine establishment.

So, I was wondering if you could point me towards any patristic sources which you think give evidence of the divine origin of the papacy.**"

I don’t have the time right now to address this thoroughly. But I wanted to throw it out here in the public forum.

Folks, remember this is about the DIVINE insitution of the PRIMACY. We’re not talking about infallibility. And please realize, Catholic members, that the poster is asking for PATRISTIC sources, so please do not, on theoretical grounds, quote anything from Pastor Aeternus or afterwards.

And let’s establish some basic principles in this discussion:

(1) Quotes from the Fathers that assert that the bishop of Rome succeeds St. Peter in the primacy DO NOT answer the question.

(2) Quotes related to infallibility and indefectibility DO NOT answer the question.

(3) Quotes that establish the primacy of the bishop of Rome DO NOT answer the question.

I will formulate a response, but it will take time, as I will be very busy in the following week.

Blessings,
Marduk
Hi Mardukm and Miles Vitae,

thank you for such an enjoyable thread.

I’d like to offer a quotation.

St Thedore the Studite of Costantinople ( ok, we’d be technically just outside the Patristic time :)) in a letter to pope Paschal ( 12 of Book ii, which we can find in documentacatholicaomnia.eu/20vs/103_migne_gm/0758-0826,_Theodorus_Studita,Epistolae(MPG_099_0903_1680),_GM.pdf, in Greek and in a Latin translation ), writes:
  • Hear, O Apostolic Head, divinely-appointed ( theoproblete ) Shepherd of Christ’s sheep, keybearer of the Kingdom of Heaven, Rock of the Faith upon which the Catholic Church is built. *….
And later in the same text we have:
*
To thee spoke Christ our Lord:‘And thou being one day converted, shalt strengthen thy brethren.’ Behold the hour and the place. Help us, thou that art set by God for this.*]

I hope this can count and help.

In Christ
P7
 
Dear brother MilesVitae,
Would examples of this paradigm be the Sacraments and their ministers, the visible structure of the Church, the Bishops as teachers and governors?

I’ve been mulling over this whole question in terms of the “Incarnational principle” for the last day or so…
Yes, that’s how God rules his Church – through His appointed ministers. There is an hierarchy of roles in the Church of God - established by God in Jesus Christ - as is evident in Scripture, and throughout the history of the Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
But it forces the question, well if Jesus really did intend to mean what Stephen Ray says Jesus meant, then why did not the apostles understand this? For instance, James is the Bishop of Jerusalem, not any of the 12 apostles???
The Apostles were intended by Christ to be itinerant and to spread the Gospel, not to spend time only in one place to oversee a local Church.
Or why did none of Paul’s letters reveal a papacy or an indestructible perpetual office of God’s shepherd with Peter’s successor? Paul should have mentioned this to Timothy because he was admonishing Timothy to keep the faith, but why omit the papacy?
In Galatians, St. Paul mentions that at the start of his ministry, he conferred with St. Peter and no other Apostle. That would certainly indicate the uniqueness of St. Peter’s position among the Apostles.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
The Apostles were intended by Christ to be itinerant and to spread the Gospel, not to spend time only in one place to oversee a local Church.

In Galatians, St. Paul mentions that at the start of his ministry, he conferred with St. Peter and no other Apostle. That would certainly indicate the uniqueness of St. Peter’s position among the Apostles.

Blessings,
Marduk
Perhaps none of the other “pillars of the Church” that St. Paul mentions elsewhere, James and John, were available.
 
I want to refresh this discussion, simply because it is very interesting to me.

I wanted to highlight the fact that we should limit the amount of development of the Papacy in post-apostolic times.

For instance, if when Jesus told Peter that he was the rock of the Church and that he would hold the keys to the kingdom of heaven the apostles did not understand what he was saying, then we do not have grounds to use this verse as a justification for the modern day papacy.

For example, Stephen Ray does a good job of providing an apologetic for the historical evidence of the papacy, and he does so by spending pages and pages on how Matthrew 16 means, and what the “rock” means, and what the “keys” means and what “binding and loosing means” and how it necessitates “succession”,etc,etc and basically he is finding everything that is in the papacy now was stated by Jesus then.

But it forces the question, well if Jesus really did intend to mean what Stephen Ray says Jesus meant, then why did not the apostles understand this? For instance, James is the Bishop of Jerusalem, not any of the 12 apostles??? Or why did none of Paul’s letters reveal a papacy or an indestructible perpetual office of God’s shepherd with Peter’s successor? Paul should have mentioned this to Timothy because he was admonishing Timothy to keep the faith, but why omit the papacy?
If the Apostles didn’t understand what Jesus meant, then of what use is the Deposit of Faith to us? Why do we know more today than those who actually lived alongside Jesus and could have asked him the question directly? And why do we say our faith is Apostolic if we believe that the Apostles themselves were clueless about certain aspects of our own faith? 🤷
 
In Galatians, St. Paul mentions that at the start of his ministry, he conferred with St. Peter and no other Apostle. That would certainly indicate the uniqueness of St. Peter’s position among the Apostles.
This is a case of, “oohhh, I believe in Papal Supremacy thus I will interpret this to mean that.” Clearly if you ask someone who has no concept of Papal Supremacy if this encounter meant anything, they wouldn’t come to that conclusion. Of course St. Peter occupies a special place among the Apostles. But that doesn’t automatically mean he rules over them.
 
Perhaps none of the other “pillars of the Church” that St. Paul mentions elsewhere, James and John, were available.
Highly unlikely. First of all, St. John according to Tradition was the constant companion of St. Peter. Secondly, the epistle to the Galatians does indeed indicate that he did see St. James, but only conferred with St. Peter.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
This is a case of, “oohhh, I believe in Papal Supremacy thus I will interpret this to mean that.” Clearly if you ask someone who has no concept of Papal Supremacy if this encounter meant anything, they wouldn’t come to that conclusion. Of course St. Peter occupies a special place among the Apostles. But that doesn’t automatically mean he rules over them.
“Uniqueness” is read by CTG as “supremacy.”:rolleyes: Why must you impose your misunderstanding of the Church’s teaching on everything?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
“Uniqueness” is read by CTG as “supremacy.”:rolleyes: Why must the Absolutist Petrine misunderstanding of the Church’s teaching be imposed on everything?

Blessings,
Marduk
I corrected my statement to conform more to the Forum debate guidelines. Sorry for the use of the second person.:o

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother MilesVitae,

Where are we at right now? Philosophically and scripturally speaking, through the parable of the Faithful and Wise Servant, you had agreed that Jesus’ statement that the head servant will exist when the Master returns naturally means that the office of the head servant will exist until Christ’s return. It also seems you agree that we should take Jesus’ words at its most natural meaning. We also agree that the primacy of the bishop of Rome among all the Churches is a historical fact. I’m not sure what else we can discuss at this point.

Unless, you have other concerns, I’m imagining that we can now present the patristic evidence for the primacy of the bishop of Rome (remember we are not yet discussing the third issue - the interpretation of the primacy).

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Thank you brother P7. It contributes greatly to the thread. Sorry for not acknowledging this earlier.

Blessings,
Marduk
thank you for such an enjoyable thread.

I’d like to offer a quotation.

St Thedore the Studite of Costantinople ( ok, we’d be technically just outside the Patristic time :)) in a letter to pope Paschal ( 12 of Book ii, which we can find in documentacatholicaomnia.eu/20vs/103_migne_gm/0758-0826,_Theodorus_Studita,Epistolae(MPG_099_0903_1680),_GM.pdf, in Greek and in a Latin translation ), writes:
  • Hear, O Apostolic Head, divinely-appointed ( theoproblete ) Shepherd of Christ’s sheep*, keybearer of the Kingdom of Heaven, Rock of the Faith upon which the Catholic Church is built. ….
And later in the same text we have:
*
To thee spoke Christ our Lord*:‘And thou being one day converted, shalt strengthen thy brethren.’ Behold the hour and the place. Help us, thou that art set by God for this.]

I hope this can count and help.
 
Dear brother Gary,
I didn’t read the entire content of the link, but one thing caught my eye - the interpretation of Fr. Hardon that St. Cyprian taught that unity is restored by submission to the Pope. I personally don’t agree with that interpretation of St. Cyprian, but I will hold off on the matter until we get into a discussion on the third issue in this thread - the interpretation of the primacy.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
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