Divorce and anullment confusion

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I keep reading posts saying that Protestant people who are divorced have to get an annullment to be married to someone in the Catholic church. That part is fine, I get it I guess. But I also read posts that say if a Catholic is dating a divorced person, regardless of religion, who has not gotten their marriage annulled is actually still married and that relationship a sin. I sort of get that i guess, although I’m still trying to wrap my mind around a Protestant sinning in the eyes of a Catholic church even though they aren’t Catholic. i don’t understand why a Protestant who has no intention of converting to the Catholic church has to get their marriage annulled.

But here is my real question. What about two Protestants? If one or both is divorced but not annulled are they sinning? I don’t get it. I read a post earlier today that sort of stated this in a round about way.

I am asking because I am very confused.
 
i don’t understand why a Protestant who has no intention of converting to the Catholic church has to get their marriage annulled.
A married person is not free to date or marry another. They are married. God’s law regarding marriage is not just for Catholics. God’s law is for all. Those who are unbaptized are in good and natural marriages. Those who are baptized (Catholic and non-Catholic alike) are in sacramental marriages. Sacramental marriages cannot be dissolved by any power except death. So, the only way a Catholic could date and marry a person who was married and civilly divorced is if that marriage was invalid. And to determine whether that marriage was invalid or not it must be submitted to the Tribunal.
But here is my real question. What about two Protestants? If one or both is divorced but not annulled are they sinning? I don’t get it. I read a post earlier today that sort of stated this in a round about way.

I am asking because I am very confused.
Are two protestants who fornicate sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who contracept sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who steal sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who watch pornography sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who get abortions sinning? Yes

I think you get the picture. Divorce and remarriage is a sin against marriage. This is God’s law, not the Catholic Church’s law.

The person who does so is committing adultery. So, yes, they are sinning. More accurately, they are committing a gravely wrong act. Sin requires full knowledge and free will. A protestant who has been taught all their life that it’s OK to divorce and remarry under certain-- or any-- circumstance may not be *sinning *because they have an ill-formed conscience on the matter. But, they are committing a gravely wrong act against the Sixth Commandment.

Are two protestant who eats meat on Fridays sinning? NO.
Are two protestants who fail to attend Mass on a Holy Day of Obligation sinning? No

These are merely ecclesial law and binds **only **Catholics.
 
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But here is my real question. What about two Protestants? If one or both is divorced but not annulled are they sinning? I don’t get it. I read a post earlier today that sort of stated this in a round about way.

I am asking because I am very confused.
Only Catholics are bound by Catholic canon law, but everyone is bound by natural law on marriage, it is hard-wired into human nature by the Creator, whether or not humans acknowledge it, it is still true: marriage is between one man and one woman, adultery is wrong, and marriage is for life, and the purpose of marriage is unity, establishment of family, and procreation. Protestants are also bound by the laws of their respective denominations, and by Christ’s clear teaching in the Bible: Jesus says divorce is forbidden, even though Moses allowed it due to their hardness of heart, unless the contract was illegal from the start. It is this illegality or invalidity that a Catholic annulment investigation determines. A civil divorce does not and cannot end a valid marriage. Therefore anyone who is already married is not free to marry again, despite any civil law decision. Their status must be investigated by the canon law tribunal of the Catholic diocese to determine if the first marriage was valid at its inception. Only if the first marriage is declared null (never happened, no valid contract) will they be free to marry anyone.

Despite the fact that civil law and secular society denies this natural law, it is still in effect. Congress or the state of Mass, NH, or VT have no authority to change this, any more than they have authority to change the laws of physics.

what two non-Catholics do or do not do is not the concern of the Catholic Church, other than the general regret if there is sin involved, but once it impinges on a Catholic who is bound by canon law, the Church can and must act. So two non-Catholics who validly marry, divorce, and remarry other persons, are not validly married to their new spouses, regardless of what they feel personally, what their religion allows, or what civil law says. That remains their business until and unless one of them now seeks to marry a Catholic.
 
Are two protestants who fornicate sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who contracept sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who steal sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who watch pornography sinning? Yes
Are two protestants who get abortions sinning? Yes
And here is why I am confused. Most Protestant churches don’t teach this. If people are divorced, then they are divorced and the marriage is dissolved. Why is it a sin then? Do all Protestants have to visit a Catholic church even though they have absolutely no affiliation with the Catholic church to dissolve their marriage? I really don’t understand why it matters.
I think you get the picture. Divorce and remarriage is a sin against marriage. This is God’s law, not the Catholic Church’s law.
Where is this in the Bible? I know it says that unfaithfulness is grounds for divorce. Also, in John, it says if you confess your sins to God you will be forgiven - for those who see divorce as a sin. But where does it say that the marriage has to be absolved through the Catholic church?

I am truly concerned about this.

Thanks.
 
And here is why I am confused. Most Protestant churches don’t teach this. If people are divorced, then they are divorced and the marriage is dissolved. Why is it a sin then? Do all Protestants have to visit a Catholic church even though they have absolutely no affiliation with the Catholic church to dissolve their marriage? I really don’t understand why it matters…
Protestant congregations teach partial truth and many errors. They do not provide the full teaching on the Eucharist, on Confession, on the Priesthood, etc. God’s law on marriage sparked a big ole hunk of the Protestant beginnings, remember Henry VIII?
Where is this in the Bible? I know it says that unfaithfulness is grounds for divorce. Also, in John, it says if you confess your sins to God you will be forgiven - for those who see divorce as a sin. But where does it say that the marriage has to be absolved through the Catholic church?

I am truly concerned about this.

Thanks.
Begin with reading this tract catholic.com/library/Permanence_of_Matrimony.asp
 
And here is why I am confused. Most Protestant churches don’t teach this.
You are correct, many do not teach the truth on this matter.
If people are divorced, then they are divorced and the marriage is dissolved. Why is it a sin then?
Because sin is not dependent upon what people believe. Sin is a reality. God’s law is eternal and universal. Something either transgresses God’s law or it doesn’t.

God holds all people accountable for what they can know through human reason. He additionally holds Christians responsible for what has been revealed through Divine Revelation.

In your example, the marriage is not dissolved. That is the reality. Subjectively these people are in error in believing they can contract another marriage. Whether or not they are in a state of sin depends upon whether or not they have full knowledge and free will-- we cannot judge whether they are sinning. We can judge the rightness or wrongess of their action based on the objective moral criteria given by Christ.
Do all Protestants have to visit a Catholic church even though they have absolutely no affiliation with the Catholic church to dissolve their marriage? I really don’t understand why it matters.
The Catholic Church cannot dissolve any valid, sacramental marriage-- Catholic or non-Catholic.

If you mean “declare null” that is not the same thing as “dissolve.”

Let’s straighten that out before we go further.
Where is this in the Bible?
Christ taught that Moses had erred in allowing divorce and allowing remarriage. Christ states that no man can separate what God has joined.
I know it says that unfaithfulness is grounds for divorce.
It does not state that a divorced person can remarry. The passage in Matthew indicates that there may be times when a marriage is unlawful-- i.e. null from the beginning. This is often mistranslated into English as “unfaithfulness.”
Also, in John, it says if you confess your sins to God you will be forgiven - for those who see divorce as a sin.
The Church does not see civil divorce as a sin. There are legitimate reasons that one may need to legally separate from their spouse to protect them or their children, physically, mentally, financially, etc.

Adultery is a sin, and adultery is committed whenever a person who is already married (whether civilly divorced or not) attempts to marry another while their spouse is still living.

Confession of any sin on the part of the person for the root causes of a divorce certainly should be confessed. However, forgiveness for whatever part they played in the breakdown of their marriag (if any) does not give them the ability to marry another.

What God has joined, no man can separate.
But where does it say that the marriage has to be absolved through the Catholic church?
You have some wrong ideas. The Church does not teach that marriage can be dissolved (I believe that’s what you meant when you wrote absolved).
I am truly concerned about this.
In what way?
 
So who do Prostestants turn to in order to find out of their marriage was valid or not?
 
I can speak from experience - my wife and I were both Baptists before our conversion to the Catholic Church. I had a previous marriage, in which I had to petition the Tribunal for a Decree of Nullity before we could be confirmed. My first marriage was declared invalid, and the presumption of validity automatically fell to my current marriage (since none of us, including my first wife, were Catholic).

I know this may not be the question you’re asking, but I did want to at least share the experience. If you are curious as to the process in general, I can answer what my experience was like.

Puzzleannie, 1ke, and kage_ar are right on the money though about what the Church teaches. You can take their answers to the bank.👍
So who do Prostestants turn to in order to find out of their marriage was valid or not?
 
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