H
HibernoNorse
Guest
This is an honest question. I was a convert to the Roman Catholic Church out of Episcopalianism, but am now converting to Orthodoxy in part due to this problem.
For reference, google the eastern Catholic practice of ecclesiastical divorce, which was practiced from those rites entrance into communion with Rome up in to the 20th century. I’d post a link, but this page prevents me from doing so.
Yes - eastern Catholics practiced divorce and remarriage, while being in communion with Rome, up until the 20th century - well before Vatican II, under many traditional, anti-modernist Popes and bishops.
I can only derive two conclusions: that a) the Roman Catholic Church taught error, and allowed some of its members to commit adultery for centuries or b) the Roman Catholic Church’s teaching on divorce in remarriage is wrong, and that it has been teaching error and continues to.
I understand the theology behind both the Roman Catholic and Eastern orthodox views on the matter. But what I am asking, is there a third option? Because if either of these two options are correct, I fail to see that the Roman Catholic claims to truth are valid. If this was a “development of doctrine” situation, then how do we know that morality can’t change? Please do not insult me, because I usually get insulted when I bring up inconsistencies like this.
For reference, google the eastern Catholic practice of ecclesiastical divorce, which was practiced from those rites entrance into communion with Rome up in to the 20th century. I’d post a link, but this page prevents me from doing so.
Yes - eastern Catholics practiced divorce and remarriage, while being in communion with Rome, up until the 20th century - well before Vatican II, under many traditional, anti-modernist Popes and bishops.
I can only derive two conclusions: that a) the Roman Catholic Church taught error, and allowed some of its members to commit adultery for centuries or b) the Roman Catholic Church’s teaching on divorce in remarriage is wrong, and that it has been teaching error and continues to.
I understand the theology behind both the Roman Catholic and Eastern orthodox views on the matter. But what I am asking, is there a third option? Because if either of these two options are correct, I fail to see that the Roman Catholic claims to truth are valid. If this was a “development of doctrine” situation, then how do we know that morality can’t change? Please do not insult me, because I usually get insulted when I bring up inconsistencies like this.