D
dcarollo
Guest
OK, help me understand this answer – because it makes no sense to me… (highlighted in bold)…
(NOTE: I’m a former Protestant currently exploring Catholicism, hoping to take RCIA sometime next year. In the meantime, doing a lot of self-learning and running across an occasional difficulty — such as this one. Fortunately, for most of the difficulties I’ve faced in the past, I have found that patience does usually pays off in the end – so perhaps this will be just another case. So, my apologies ahead of time if my tone seems at all “snarky”. I’m just trying to get to the truth!)
Reference:
catholic.com/quickquestions/does-jesus-leave-a-loophole-for-divorce-in-matthew-199
*The constant teaching of the Church has been that a valid sacramental marriage can not be broken, even if one party sins. As Matthew 19:6 says, “Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate.” Biblical scholars, such as J. Bonsirven, have pointed out that the Greek word that is pivotal here is “porneia,” which means unlawful sexual intercourse. The Gospel does not use the Greek word “moicheia,” which is the ordinary Greek word for adultery.
**The intent appears to be to distinguish a true marriage from concubinage. What is being said is that if a man and a woman are in fact married, the bond is inseparable. But if they are not married, just “living together,” then there is no lawful marriage and there can be a separation or annulment. *The wording of the New American Bible for Matthew 19:9 is a translation that gives us this sense.
So in other words, is this saying Jesus isn’t talking about married people at all – but only an engaged, cohabitating couple ? But that doesn’t make sense of the phrase: “whoever divorces his wife”. He could only be saying this if he’s talking about a true marriage. Secondly, the context of the discussion initiated by the Pharisees (verse 2) is clearly divorce between truly married people.
Please me out here. It seems to me this interpretation is excessively rigid and doesn’t seem very defensible at all. The plainest sense of the verse here is marital, sexual infidelity. I don’t see how it can be read any other way.
Here’s the full context starting in verse 2:
*19 When Jesus had finished these words, He departed from Galilee and came into the region of Judea beyond the Jordan; 2 and [a]large crowds followed Him, and He healed them there.
3 Some Pharisees came to **Jesus, testing Him and asking, “Is it lawful for a man to [c]divorce his wife for any reason at all?” 4 And He answered and said, “Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate.” 7 They *said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce and send her away?” 8 He *said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to [d]divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. 9 And I say to you, whoever [e]divorces his wife, except for [f]immorality, and marries another woman [g]commits adultery[h].”
10 The disciples said to Him, “If the relationship of the man with his wife is like this, it is better not to marry.” 11 But He said to them, “Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given. 12 For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it.”*
Here are several translations of the same passage:
American Standard Version:
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that marrieth her when she is put away committeth adultery.
New American Standard Bible:
And I say to you, whoever **divorces his wife, except for [c]immorality, and marries another woman [d]commits adultery[e].”
Douay-Rheims**
9 And I say to you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that shall marry her that is put away, committeth adultery.
English Standard Version:
9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”[a]
New International Version:
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
Jewish Orthodox Bible:
But I [Moshiach] say to you that whoever, the case of zenut (fornication) being excepted, gives the get to his wife and marries another, is guilty of niuf (adultery).*
(NOTE: I’m a former Protestant currently exploring Catholicism, hoping to take RCIA sometime next year. In the meantime, doing a lot of self-learning and running across an occasional difficulty — such as this one. Fortunately, for most of the difficulties I’ve faced in the past, I have found that patience does usually pays off in the end – so perhaps this will be just another case. So, my apologies ahead of time if my tone seems at all “snarky”. I’m just trying to get to the truth!)
Reference:
catholic.com/quickquestions/does-jesus-leave-a-loophole-for-divorce-in-matthew-199
*The constant teaching of the Church has been that a valid sacramental marriage can not be broken, even if one party sins. As Matthew 19:6 says, “Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate.” Biblical scholars, such as J. Bonsirven, have pointed out that the Greek word that is pivotal here is “porneia,” which means unlawful sexual intercourse. The Gospel does not use the Greek word “moicheia,” which is the ordinary Greek word for adultery.
**The intent appears to be to distinguish a true marriage from concubinage. What is being said is that if a man and a woman are in fact married, the bond is inseparable. But if they are not married, just “living together,” then there is no lawful marriage and there can be a separation or annulment. *The wording of the New American Bible for Matthew 19:9 is a translation that gives us this sense.
So in other words, is this saying Jesus isn’t talking about married people at all – but only an engaged, cohabitating couple ? But that doesn’t make sense of the phrase: “whoever divorces his wife”. He could only be saying this if he’s talking about a true marriage. Secondly, the context of the discussion initiated by the Pharisees (verse 2) is clearly divorce between truly married people.
Please me out here. It seems to me this interpretation is excessively rigid and doesn’t seem very defensible at all. The plainest sense of the verse here is marital, sexual infidelity. I don’t see how it can be read any other way.
Here’s the full context starting in verse 2:
*19 When Jesus had finished these words, He departed from Galilee and came into the region of Judea beyond the Jordan; 2 and [a]large crowds followed Him, and He healed them there.
3 Some Pharisees came to **Jesus, testing Him and asking, “Is it lawful for a man to [c]divorce his wife for any reason at all?” 4 And He answered and said, “Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate.” 7 They *said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce and send her away?” 8 He *said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to [d]divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. 9 And I say to you, whoever [e]divorces his wife, except for [f]immorality, and marries another woman [g]commits adultery[h].”
10 The disciples said to Him, “If the relationship of the man with his wife is like this, it is better not to marry.” 11 But He said to them, “Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given. 12 For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it.”*
Here are several translations of the same passage:
American Standard Version:
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that marrieth her when she is put away committeth adultery.
New American Standard Bible:
And I say to you, whoever **divorces his wife, except for [c]immorality, and marries another woman [d]commits adultery[e].”
Douay-Rheims**
9 And I say to you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that shall marry her that is put away, committeth adultery.
English Standard Version:
9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”[a]
New International Version:
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
Jewish Orthodox Bible:
But I [Moshiach] say to you that whoever, the case of zenut (fornication) being excepted, gives the get to his wife and marries another, is guilty of niuf (adultery).*