F
Filius99993
Guest
Hypothetical question: If a Catholic man marries a non-Catholic woman who has had a divorce, does he sin if he has sex with her?
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
- Status
- Not open for further replies.
R
rpp
Guest
He would sin (and so would she) even if he does not have sex with her. It is adultery. The adultery is public because when the woman made her vows, she was not in a state, that is unmarried or widowed, where she could freely make a wedding vow.
Having sex merely compounds the sin.
Having sex merely compounds the sin.
F
Filius99993
Guest
What if she had a marriage where her former husband and herself didn’t recite vows, but were deemed ‘married’ by the government after five years? Would that change anything?He would sin (and so would she) even if he does not have sex with her. It is adultery. The adultery is public because when the woman made her vows, she was not in a state, that is unmarried or widowed, where she could freely make a wedding vow.
Having sex merely compounds the sin.
B
Br.Rich_SFO
Guest
It would be the sin of Adultery assuming that her first Marriage was not determined to be invalid.Hypothetical question: If a Catholic man marries a non-Catholic woman who has had a divorce, does he sin if he has sex with her?
B
Br.Rich_SFO
Guest
If it’s on the public record or in the “external forum”.What if she had a marriage where her former husband and herself didn’t recite vows, but were deemed ‘married’ by the government after five years? Would that change anything?
J
Joe_Kelley
Guest
I am not an expert on this, but think I saw that “Common Law” marriage is not recognized by the Church. A valid marriage requires an expression of consent by both parties. There is no giving of consent in the “Common Law” marriage.What if she had a marriage where her former husband and herself didn’t recite vows, but were deemed ‘married’ by the government after five years? Would that change anything?
J
Joe_5859
Guest
In any marriage, the Church presumes the validity of the marriage (even non-Catholic ones) until proven otherwise. Even if it’s a clear open-and-shut case, the diocesan marriage tribunal still needs to formally examine and grant the annulment before they would be free to marry within the Catholic Church.
I’m not sure what happens in the case of common law marriages, but in any case, I would recommend putting in a phone call to the diocesan marriage tribunal!
In this hypothetical example, did this Catholic man marry this non-Catholic woman in the Catholic Church? As a Catholic, he is bound by canon law and thus he must be married in a Church by a Catholic clergyman in order for his marriage to be valid. So, either he got married outside of the Church, in which case the answer is obvious that the marriage is invalid. Or else he got married within the Church and we can presume that the couple already resolved these issues beforehand.
I’m not sure what happens in the case of common law marriages, but in any case, I would recommend putting in a phone call to the diocesan marriage tribunal!
In this hypothetical example, did this Catholic man marry this non-Catholic woman in the Catholic Church? As a Catholic, he is bound by canon law and thus he must be married in a Church by a Catholic clergyman in order for his marriage to be valid. So, either he got married outside of the Church, in which case the answer is obvious that the marriage is invalid. Or else he got married within the Church and we can presume that the couple already resolved these issues beforehand.
F
Filius99993
Guest
I was kind of assuming that this question was something the Catholic man was wondering before he would be married. He’d marry inside of the Catholic church, by a priest, of course. But I was wondering also if she could get an annulment without actually being Catholic… I know of quite a few people who have these sorts of marriages going on, and was wondering if they are valid or sinful or what. There are a lot of issues that come to mind, you know.In any marriage, the Church presumes the validity of the marriage (even non-Catholic ones) until proven otherwise. Even if it’s a clear open-and-shut case, the diocesan marriage tribunal still needs to formally examine and grant the annulment before they would be free to marry within the Catholic Church.
I’m not sure what happens in the case of common law marriages, but in any case, I would recommend putting in a phone call to the diocesan marriage tribunal!
In this hypothetical example, did this Catholic man marry this non-Catholic woman in the Catholic Church? As a Catholic, he is bound by canon law and thus he must be married in a Church by a Catholic clergyman in order for his marriage to be valid. So, either he got married outside of the Church, in which case the answer is obvious that the marriage is invalid. Or else he got married within the Church and we can presume that the couple already resolved these issues beforehand.
J
Joe_Kelley
Guest
One doesn’t need to be Catholic to apply for or receive a Decree of Nullity.. . . But I was wondering also if she could get an annulment without actually being Catholic… .
R
rwoehmke
Guest
To the best of my knowledge there are no longer any states that recognize common law marriage,i.e. a legal status of marriage after co-habiting for a certain period of time. That being the case having been in a co-habiting relationship should not be a bar to getting married to each other or someone else in the Catholic Church. I would have a real difficult time recommending one of my children consider marrying such a person as it would seem to indicate a certain lack of maturity and respect for religion on that person’s part…
J
justinthemartyr
Guest
There is no such thing as divorce in the sight of God once a couple is validly married.
that should answer you question.
that should answer you question.
F
Filius99993
Guest
Are you implying that marriages outside of the Catholic church are not valid in God’s eyes?There is no such thing as divorce in the sight of God once a couple is validly married.
that should answer you question.
J
justinthemartyr
Guest
not at all. does the catholic church teach that only marriages within the catholic church are valid?
F
Filius99993
Guest
Ahhh. There are probably so many invalid marriages out there it isn’t even funny. I wish people were more moral, and that they’d actually take time to decide.not at all. does the catholic church teach that only marriages within the catholic church are valid?
M
mchale
Guest
Obviously the safest course in such a situation is to have the Church examine to see if the woman’s first marriage was valid first.
That being said, IIRC, the Church requires that if the woman belongs to a religious denomination, that it must recognize the marriage as being valid. For example, since the Orthodox Church, like the Catholic Church recognizes marriage as being a sacrement, it is likely that if an Orthodox woman married in a civil ceremony, that the marriage would not be recognized in the Orthodox Church and therefore, the Catholic Church would not either.
–
Bill
That being said, IIRC, the Church requires that if the woman belongs to a religious denomination, that it must recognize the marriage as being valid. For example, since the Orthodox Church, like the Catholic Church recognizes marriage as being a sacrement, it is likely that if an Orthodox woman married in a civil ceremony, that the marriage would not be recognized in the Orthodox Church and therefore, the Catholic Church would not either.
–
Bill
J
Joe_Kelley
Guest
The Church teaching is that all marriages are presumed valid until proven otherwise.not at all. does the catholic church teach that only marriages within the catholic church are valid?
The two notable exceptions I can think of are:
- One of the parties had been previously in a marriage, which is presumed valid until proven otherwise.
- One of the parties is Catholic or Orthodox, and the marriage was not in accord with the rules of that Church.
F
Filius99993
Guest
Are there other exceptions? I mean, I know a Catholic woman who was physically abused (to the extent that she had several miscarriages because of it) by her Islamic husband. She left the country she was living with her husband in and her marriage was annulled. Of course, she was the daughter of the Archbishop. It still took a long while before it was annulled still. She hasn’t remarried, but what if she had been Protestant and had wished to marry a Catholic after the end of her marriage?The Church teaching is that all marriages are presumed valid until proven otherwise.
The two notable exceptions I can think of are:
These are considered obvious proof of the marriage’s invalidity.
- One of the parties had been previously in a marriage, which is presumed valid until proven otherwise.
- One of the parties is Catholic or Orthodox, and the marriage was not in accord with the rules of that Church.
J
Joe_Kelley
Guest
As I saidAre there other exceptions? I mean, I know a Catholic woman who was physically abused (to the extent that she had several miscarriages because of it) by her Islamic husband. She left the country she was living with her husband in and her marriage was annulled. Of course, she was the daughter of the Archbishop. It still took a long while before it was annulled still. She hasn’t remarried, but what if she had been Protestant and had wished to marry a Catholic after the end of her marriage?
A Decree of Nullity says it was proven otherwise.Code:The Church teaching is that all marriages are presumed valid until proven otherwise.
- Status
- Not open for further replies.