O
OrbisNonSufficit
Guest
and again, the question as to whether the sin is done or ongoing . . .
I don’t think there is anything about “whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery except when sin is considered complete”. I don’t understand how this would fit the definition- even if sin is complete, effects of it are not. Lord explicitly states that to be unlawful and says it is “committing adultery”. I understand your concept of ongoing sin vs completed, but still effects are in place and this verse addresses that very, very clearly and explicitly.But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.