Do Catholics believe in a literal interpretation of the Bible?

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Hi. We covered “The Bible” in my last RCIA class and the speaker mentioned Jonah & the big fish as an example of how God deals with disobedience. He also mentioned Noah & the ark. Question: Does the Catholic Church teach that those were historical events that actually happened or does the church view some Bible stories as just “stories?”
 
You’ve opened a can of worms! I think that the Church teaches the bible to be inerrant. This leaves some wriggle-room. For example in the Psalms and elsewhere God is referred to as having wings, and eyes and so on, but that’s poetic. The Father’s of the Church wrote of four ways in which the bible can be interpreted, and I can’t remember them now, but applying scholarly methods to the sacred text doesn’t neccessarily mean the bible is untrue. I don’t think that the Church stands in the way of genuine academic insight, but the intention must be that it is done in service to the truth, not to explain away the truth.

The best rule of thumb is to believe that we can pick up a bible and believe what is written there. Otherwise reading the bible becomes solely the realm of the expert.
 
So Jonah did get swallowed by a fish and Noah did build an ark & load up the animals two by two?
 
Not all of it is literal, for example, creation in 6 days. It took more than 144 hrs.

I’m not sure about Jonah, but there has been some historical proof regarding Noah. Not necessarily flooding the whole world, but of a great flood. There has been documents found in other countries and religions supporting this. If someone didn’t know about oceans, etc. and there was a flood where they drifted into the Med. or Arabian Gulf for several days, they might think the whole world flooded.

The lessons taught are more important than the historical accuracy.
 
carol marie:
Hi. We covered “The Bible” in my last RCIA class and the speaker mentioned Jonah & the big fish as an example of how God deals with disobedience. He also mentioned Noah & the ark. Question: Does the Catholic Church teach that those were historical events that actually happened or does the church view some Bible stories as just “stories?”
The Church does not have an “official” position on the literal historicity of these or any other Bible stories. Whether they are are not has no bearing on whether the lesson they impart is true. Catholics are free to understand them as literal or not. The Church only insists that the Bible is inspired and inerrant and that what it teaches is the truth.

I personally have no trouble with, for example, Jonah, being a true story. If there is no such fish that a man can live inside for three days, I believe God could make one.
 
carole marie,

I have and am researching this very topic. This was a low priority topic so it sits on the back burner for me. I never finished but this is what I discovered so far.

The Catholic Church has not yet decided on the matter of Jonah and the big fish. Some of the Bible is literal and some is not. In the case of Jonah the Church is silent. It neither confirms the story as fact or symbol. Just too much conflicting information to state a difinative case. The fact that the Church remains silent is not bad either.

Another example of this is whether ‘the angel of the Lord’ is Jesus. If it is Jesus then Jesus was in the OT. (If it is not Jesus then the protestant BSF International Bible study fellowship is wrong since they declared it to be Jesus as fact.)

I guess I did not help at all.:rolleyes:
 
carol marie:
Hi. We covered “The Bible” in my last RCIA class and the speaker mentioned Jonah & the big fish as an example of how God deals with disobedience. He also mentioned Noah & the ark. Question: Does the Catholic Church teach that those were historical events that actually happened or does the church view some Bible stories as just “stories?”

Two points - “literal” is liable to cause misunderstanding, because it can mean either of two things:​

  1. The linguistic meaning of the text - Greek theos means “god”, no matter what the context; it never means “elephant” or “sun”, for example. In that sense, theos has “god” or “God” as its “literal meaning”
  2. Words can also be used in a transferred sense: Our Lord, Peter, the other Apostles, & and Christians in general, are all called “stones” or “rocks” in the NT.
But, does this mean Our Lord is a chunk of granite or limestone, for a geologist to study ? Of course not. The word “rock” keeps its dictionary meaning - but, “Be built up like living stones” is an encouragement to Christians to have the sort of durability and strength & firmness associated with rock and stone; it’s a transferred use of the word “stone”; because stones, obviously, are not living.

So the “dictionary meaning” of a word, is sometimes present only for the sake of the transferred. “non-proper”, meaning.

As for Jonah; there is a variety of interpretation; the book might be intended as an attack upon Jewish exclusiveness after the return from the Exile, the name of a prophet of whom nothing is known - apart from a single mention in 2 Kings - being adopted as the hero;

or, it could be that the book has a basis in historical fact.

Both possibilities are perfectly Catholic.

As for Noah: there are several flood-stories, and several possible floods - it’s not easy to match the Genesis flood to any one of them as “the” Flood. The point of the story is more important than trying to identify which one is meant; the point being, that God is faithful. the Genesis story may well owe something to older stories of the same sort - but it differs from them greatly, because it has one holy God, as against their many rather changeable and non-ethical gods. (We can’t assume that the Biblical authors were interested in the stories they wrote for the same reasons that we might be interested in them.)

None of the Bible is “just stories” 🙂 - everything has a meaning; a lot looks like mythology or make-believe, only because the Bible grew up in a culture very different from our own.

BTW - the inerrancy of the Bible is unaffected by these uncertainties ##
 
You need to take into account that when various writings of the Bible were written, they didn’t look at historical writing in the same way we do. We look at it as a simple chronological recording of events but they looked at it in a much more fluid and dynamic way. Does this mean that it contains error? No, although we have Scripture it was not directly written for us in the 21st century. It was written for the contemporaries of the human authors and has been past down to us in the 21st century.

The Bible is completely inerent in what it intends to teach according to the understanding that would have been common when the writings were written. This is the teaching of the Church. The fact that we have don’t have that understanding today does not eliminate or even reduce the inerancy of Scripture; it only demonstrates the limits of our own knowledge.

There are parts of the Bible that are clearly intended to be interpreted literally and other parts which are clearly figurative and poetic. Revelation is both literal in its prophetic teaching but figurative and poetic in its description of that prophecy. These figurative parts do not contain error if they contain something that we would consider historically inaccurate because they did not intend to teach according to our view of history (so, to try and force a modern historical view is an erroneous exercise).
 
The Church teachs the Bible is made of Literal and Literally true statements. IE; we take the point of Jesus telling us to eat his Body and Blood as literal statement. But we take His description of cutting out our eye, hand, or foot as a literally true metaphoric statement.

Take the Creation Man. We are allowed to believe in a veriety of theories in our creation. But we must believe that our spiritual, soal, and mind came from a devine creation not biological.
 
Speaking of creation, Noah’s Ark, and Jonah, what about the Tower of Babel? My friend the other day was talking about how “God invented all languages” at the Tower of Babel; I never really imagined the world from that perspective. It always seemed to me more likely that all the languages of the world were the result of various cultures growing and evolving separately from each other. Perhaps the Tower could have happened and some new languages could have spawned from that point, but it seems like the Hebrews were just trying to explain why there are so many languages through myth.
 
Most Protestants would argue that the Bible is the inerrant, inspired word of God and that every word of the Bible is true in every way. Since God is truth and does not lie, why, they ask, would he slip stories into Scripture that were not factually, historically accurate in every way.

Before I proceed, we need to make a distinction of the Catholic understanding vs the Protestant understanding of Scripture. Many Protestants claim that the Bible is the sole authority of God. Catholics believe that Scripture is the inspired word of God but Catholics rely on the Magesterium (teaching body) of the Church, the Tradition (including the writings of the early Church fathers) and of course, Scripture. Remember, like the inspired authors of the Bible, Christ promised the aid of the Holy Spirit to His Church (its in the Bible). So like, Scripture, the Tradition and the Magesterium are inspired bodies willed by Christ Himself.

It seems to me that interpretation of the Bible by Protestants would be pretty much left up to the individual to decide since there really is no universal authority to guide them in understanding the meaning. The safe approach would be to assume a literal understanding of Scripture. In this manner, Scripture would be universally understood.

There are no myths, fairy tales or nursery rhymes in the Bible. All of the stories are true. The manner in which they were told, however, incorporated metaphors and allegory so that the people for whom the author was writing had the greatest opportunity for understanding.

So, to answer your question, Catholics do not read Scripture with a literal understanding of all passages. We come to love and appreciate Scripture when we are taught through the light and workings of the Holy Spirit to right interpetation.
 
To answer your question, the Bible is regarded by the Church as being without error. Today, there is an ongoing conflict between scientific ideas and the work of God. Too great an emphasis on this scientific approach obscures the actual work of God. Could a man survive in a whale’s belly for days? This is something God can do.

The scientific approach assumes God used a clearly define process that still exists today. Have you ever made wine? The grapes are fermented and that takes time, and even after the wine is bottled, other chemical reactions are still going on. Yet we read how Jesus asked for a container of water and turned it into fine wine instantly.

If you read other comments here, you will see that most pertain to Genesis. I was taught, in Catholic school in the 1960s, that Noak built an Ark and took on animals as described by God. That will be disputed here because some find the idea offensive.

Hope this helps,
Ed
 
kepha1
DOGMATIC CONSTITUTION ON DIVINE REVELATION Dei Verbum
cin.org/v2revel.html
The translation of Dei Verbum #11, given above, is misleading. A better translation is in CCC #107:
“Since, therefore, all that the inspired authors, or sacred writers, affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture, firmly, faithfully and without error, teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to the sacred Scriptures.”

Msgr George A Kelly explains in The New Biblical Theorists – Raymond E Brown and Beyond: “The Council chose not to say that only the Bible’s ‘spiritual truth’ or its ‘religious truth’ is free from error. The actual sentence of Dei Verbum says that every assertion of the sacred writers – whether it be religious or moral or scientific or historical – is free from error, because God wanted these writers to convey to us unalloyed truth for the sake of our salvation. The Council makes no distinction between ‘religious’ and ‘secular’ truths to be covered by inerrancy, nor is inerrancy to be restricted to ‘essential religious affirmations’ as Brown avers.” (p 157).
[See also LT61 - THE ENCYCLICAL SPIRITUS PARACLITUS IN ITS HISTORICAL CONTEXT - Part II]

On a literal interpretation:
See rtforum.org/lt/lt59.html: [Fr Brian Harrison refers to The Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation (*Dei Verbum) of Vatican II, 1963-5].
“The true sense of Dei Verbum, 11, then, is not that the guarantee of inerrancy covers those propositions which a biblical author affirms (or teaches) as opposed to those which he merely “states,” i.e., with less force or deliberation, but still as an expression of his own judgment. Rather, it covers those propositions he affirms (or teaches) as opposed to those which he merely “uses materially,” i.e., those in which what appears on paper, taken in isolation, or in its most superficially literal sense, does not express his own judgment in any way.

”These “materially used” (but not formally affirmed) propositions in Scripture would appear to be of three main kinds. First (and most obviously), there are those which the human author does not himself utter but attributes to someone else, in which case divine inspiration guarantees only the truthful reporting of such propositions, not the truth of the propositions themselves. Secondly, this category would include individual propositions used by the author as part of a parable or other imaginative literary composition, in which the formally affirmed teachings it sets out to convey emerge only from the story as a whole. Finally, there are propositions in which not every word is meant to be understood in the most immediate literal sense, since the author may be “using” hyperbole, metaphor, or other literary devices, even within a passage or book which is substantially ‘straight’ history or didactic teaching rather than fiction of some sort.

”In short, what is essentially guaranteed to be true by virtue of divine inspiration, according to the sentence of Dei Verbum, 11, we are considering, is not the isolated propositions taken in their ‘surface’ meaning and without regard to their historical and literary context, but rather (as the next article of Dei Verbum puts it) “that meaning which the sacred writers really intended, and which God, by their words, wanted to make known.” 55 The discernment of that divine and human meaning is what the Church understands by a proper ‘literal’ interpretation of the text - which is not to be confused with a ‘literalist’ interpretation.”

Note
55. “… quid hagiographi reapse significare intenderint et eorum verbis manifestare Deo placuerit” (Dei Verbum, 12). In Abbott (ed.), op. cit., this sentence is rendered as though it had another “quid” between “et” and “eorum”: the Council is made to say that interpreters should carefully investigate “what meaning the sacred writers really intended, and what God wanted to manifest by means of their words” (p. 120). This is inaccurate, for it makes a distinction between what God says in a given passage and what the human author says in it. That, plainly, could be used to undermine what the previous article (§11) has taught so clearly, namely, that God affirms everything which is affirmed by the human author. God may indeed at times say more than the human author intended (the so-called ‘fuller sense,’ sensus plenior, of Scripture, as well as its various spiritual senses), but certainly not less.​

You may find some of these articles helpful from Living Tradition
(rtforum.org/lt/index.html), at:
googlesyndicatedsearch.com/u/rtforum?q=Is+Bible+literally+true%3F&sa=Google+Search
 
This is a part from one of my RCIA classes please excuse the bold type I just copied and pasted it from my lesson plan is usually double line spaced I put it single to save space:

Gen 1:1 In the Beginning. Like I said before how many you have been told that Adam & Eve is a myth and not to take them literally? Is that really what the Church teaches about Adam & Eve? Geneses chapter one verses one and two says:

**1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 The earth was without form and void, and darkness was upon the face of the deep; and the Spirit of God was moving over the face of the waters. ****Then God created the Sun, the Moon, plants, animals, and finally on the last day the sixth day God created Man and Women verse 27 **God created man in His own image in the divine image He created him, male and female He created them. We are all pretty much familiar with that creation story

**However not too many of us is familiar with chapter two of Geneses. Starting at verse two “Since on the seventh day God was finished with the work He had been doing, He rested on the seventh day from all the work He had undertaken. 3So God blessed the seventh day and made it holy, because on it He rested from all the work He had done in creation. **

So everything is created and God rested. Now a little bit further down we read God created man beforethe plants and the animals. God created Adam from the dust of the earth in verse 7, and after Adam is created God creates the plants & tress in verse 9, the animals in verse 19, then in verses 21 & 22 God creates women. Now just wait a minute in chapter one God created man on the sixth day, in chapter two God creates man before the plants & animals. Which is it? Is the Bible the Word of God contradicting itself?

**The quick and simple answer is NO! In one of the flyers I gave out you can see **“The senses of Scripture” **that comes from the Catechism Of The Catholic Church CCC 115-118. **
Cont on next post:
 
CONT:
What the Church teaches is that the interpretation of Scripture must be done in a literal sense as opposed to be interpreted in a literalist sense. What’s the difference they sound alike they are basically the same word. At first glance you might think they mean the same thing. But they don’t at least not in the world of theology. The Church teaches the interpretation in a literal sense and condemns a literalist sense of interpretation of Scared Scripture. [See paragraph CCC116]. I will explain the difference between the two. Now lets say I emailed you and said, “It’s raining cats & dogs outside. As Americans in the 21st century you know that if you go outside it’s raining pretty dog gone hard. That is the literal interpretation of what the author [me] intended for me to say for you to understand. On the other hand what if you took the literalist interpretation of raining cat & dogs. That means if you walked outside cats & dogs will be falling from the sky like rain. After all that’s what the text says so that’s what it means. The literalist is not taking into account the accepted meaning of that fraise. Not taking in account of what the author was trying to convey. “It’s raining cats & dogs by golly that’s what it says that’s what it means. Not taking into account the time-period, who did the author intend to convey this too, what culture, what is the author’s meaning? What if this email was read two thousand years from now? What would be the best way to interpret this; the literal sense or the literalist sense? The literal sense of course.

Now is Adam & Eve a myth, is it just a story what does the Catholic Church teach? As Catholics we are free to believe that the Heavens and the Earth was created in six 24-hour days. Or the Heavens and the Earth took millions of years to be created. Or lets say I believe in the theory of evolution. Notice I said theory. What If I wanted to believe in the big bang theory of creation? What if I believed that man was formed from dust and God breathed life into his nostrils. The Church is silent on this because it doesn’t know. So it’s ok for you to believe in any one of these. As long as you believe that somewhere in the process God infused a soul into the human race. God created it. Now what does the Church teach about Adam & Eve:

CCC 375:** The Church, interpreting the symbolism of biblical language in an authentic way, in the light of the New Testament and Tradition, teaches that our first parents, Adam and Eve, were constituted in an original “state of holiness and justice”. This grace of original holiness was “to share in. . .divine life”.**** **

**CCC 404: **How did the sin of Adam become the sin of all his descendants? The whole human race is in Adam “as one body of one man”. By this “unity of the human race” all men are implicated in Adam’s sin, as all are implicated in Christ’s justice. Still, the transmission of original sin is a mystery that we cannot fully understand. But we do know by Revelation that Adam had received original holiness and justice not for himself alone, but for all human nature. By yielding to the tempter, Adam and Eve committed a personal sin, **

**So what the author is trying to convey in the meaning of these two chapters is man is the highest in order of all of Gods creations. He is not conveying a time line or a scientific thesis. **
 
On Genesis Chapters 1, 2, a seeming contradiction as to when man was created is easily explained:

Answer by Fr. John Echert on 02-18-2008 (EWTN)
The first chapter most fully describes the order and sequence of creation, with man and woman last of all the natural world creatures. The second chapter describes the fashioning of the Garden of Eden for them, which is not the start of the order of creation but a Garden within what was already in existence.
 
On Genesis Chapters 1, 2, a seeming contradiction as to when man was created is easily explained:

Answer by Fr. John Echert on 02-18-2008 (EWTN)
The first chapter most fully describes the order and sequence of creation, with man and woman last of all the natural world creatures. The second chapter describes the fashioning of the Garden of Eden for them, which is not the start of the order of creation but a Garden within what was already in existence.
Yes that’s a good point but what does that have to do with the teachings of the Church on the literal interpretation of the Bible?

I guess I don’t your point?
 
stanmaxkolbe
So everything is created and God rested. Now a little bit further down we read God created man beforethe plants and the animals. God created Adam from the dust of the earth in verse 7, and after Adam is created God creates the plants & tress in verse 9, the animals in verse 19, then in verses 21 & 22 God creates women. Now just wait a minute in chapter one God created man on the sixth day, in chapter two God creates man before the plants & animals. Which is it? Is the Bible the Word of God contradicting itself?
The quick and simple answer is NO!
Your #15: some may not know why.
 
Regarding the question posed by the thread title, it is important to first understand what Catholics mean by “the literal sense” of a text.

The literal sense of a text is that meaning which the author intends to communicate. When this is understood, we realize that every text, even one written in overtly figurative language, has a literal sense.

Here are some examples to explain what I mean:

Julius Caesar bought the farm on March 15, 44BC.
The literal sense of this statement is not that Julius Caesar purchased property used for the cultivation of crops and domestic animals; that would be a literalistic and erroneous interpretation. The true literal sense of this statement is that Julius Caesar was stabbed to death. “He bought the farm” is an idiomatic expression for “he died.”

In this case the literal sense refers to a historic fact.

My alcoholic friend Jacob fell off the wagon today.
A literalistic interpretation of this phrase would lead the reader to think that Jacob suffered an accidental fall while on a hayride. But the true literal sense of this statement is that Jacob drank an alcoholic beverage today after a period of practicing sobriety. “To fall off the wagon” is, like “bought the farm,” an idiomatic expression. It means relapsing into drinking.

In this case the literal sense does not refer to a historic fact. Jacob is a fictional character.

A fictional story can convey truth. Sometimes the truths communicated in fiction are historical. If I write a novel about the battle of Gettysburg, for example, some of events will be historical (Meade defeated Confederate attackers) even if others are not. Sometimes the truths communicated in fiction are not historical, but they are nevertheless true. As far as I know, the Pevensie family never existed in history, but the Chronicles of Narnia are full of profound spiritual wisdom.

The sun rose over the mountains, banishing the stars.
Anyone with a basic grade school knowledge of astronomy knows that “sunrise” really means that the earth rotated in such a way that the sun became visible, that the stars are still present even when they are not visible, and that the sun is itself a star. We wouldn’t say the statement is “false,” though. It communicates truth by describing appearances according to common linguistic conventions. The literal sense is that the sun became visible to the human eye, and this made other stars invisible to the human eye.

[continued…]
 
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