R
Roguish
Guest
Dear apologist:
According to the Church, a marriage is not consummated until the husband and wife unite in the conjugal act. Furthermore, it teaches that the use of contraceptives is a sin, and therefore forbidden. (And I agree with both points.)
It seems to follow then, that if a man and woman participate in the Church’s marriage ceremony and then proceed to have intercourse with the use of a contraceptive, their marriage has not been consummated, and is therefore not valid.
One could argue against this that the conjugal act would still constitute a consummation even if performed with a contraceptive, but that they would be committing a sin at the same time. This would be a dubious defense though: it practically equates to saying that it is possible for the conjugal act to be sacramental and sinful at the same time.
Can you clarify?
According to the Church, a marriage is not consummated until the husband and wife unite in the conjugal act. Furthermore, it teaches that the use of contraceptives is a sin, and therefore forbidden. (And I agree with both points.)
It seems to follow then, that if a man and woman participate in the Church’s marriage ceremony and then proceed to have intercourse with the use of a contraceptive, their marriage has not been consummated, and is therefore not valid.
One could argue against this that the conjugal act would still constitute a consummation even if performed with a contraceptive, but that they would be committing a sin at the same time. This would be a dubious defense though: it practically equates to saying that it is possible for the conjugal act to be sacramental and sinful at the same time.
Can you clarify?