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malphono
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What an amazing allegation. Maybe Chaucer used a crystal ball to see into the future. Or maybe it was a Ouija board.As an aside, “Canterbury Tales” was allegedly intended to support the reformation movement.
What an amazing allegation. Maybe Chaucer used a crystal ball to see into the future. Or maybe it was a Ouija board.As an aside, “Canterbury Tales” was allegedly intended to support the reformation movement.
What is the difference between rite and Church Sui Luris?It’s not by rite, but by Church Sui Iuris.
Most of the Byzantines do.
The Latin Rite is the main Rite (ritual form and practice) of the Latin Church. Latin Church is the same as Roman (Catholic) Church. There are other Rites in the Latin Church, however, such as the Dominican and Mozarabic, though they are quite limited in their areas of use.also is the Latin Rite and the Roman Catholic Church the same thing?
Rite is a liturgical family. There are about half dozen Eastern rites in this sense.What is the difference between rite and Church Sui Luris?
I would strongly disagree with that statement. Most of the people who hold that assertion are Anglicans trying to claim him for their own. Since Chaucer was never included or even suggested for inclusion in the Index Librorum Prohibitorum, one can be sure his works were never considered anti-Catholic by the hierarchy. My dear departed classics professor John Senior would be rolling in his grave at such an assertion.As an aside, “Canterbury Tales” was allegedly intended to support the reformation movement.
Something that occured to me: the use of the term “Eastern rites” for “Eastern Catholic Churches” is influenced by two different models of the Church.Rite is a liturgical family. There are about half dozen Eastern rites in this sense.
A sui juris church has its own hierarchy, sometimes patriarchal, sometimes major archepiscopal, sometimes with other structural forms, which is autonomous under the Pope and basically manages its own affairs, including choosing its own bishops.
Latins, especially before Vatican II, tend to use the solecism “Melkite rite” (for example) when the term “Melkite Church” should be used.
Between 1066 & 1880, it was clearly the former; since Vatican II (since 1965, really), clearly the latter. In between, the popes kept improving the status of the eastern churches outside their own homelands.Something that occured to me: the use of the term “Eastern rites” for “Eastern Catholic Churches” is influenced by two different models of the Church.
Is the Catholic Church one unified, uniform whole, that is, Latin, with these exotic “rites” allowed to exist as tolerated exceptions?
Or is the Catholic Church a COMMUNION or community of autonomous Churches in communion with the See of St. Peter and upholding the same faith?
For the first grouping, I would prefer to say de fecto, yes, but de jure, no. In other words, whereas the practice was more-or-less as you say, the rule was something else. For the second, well, that’s a matter of opinion. For the third, what you say is, to my knowledge, essentially true for the Byzantine East. But it’s not quite so true for the non-Byzantine Orient.Between 1066 & 1880, it was clearly the former; since Vatican II (since 1965, really), clearly the latter. In between, the popes kept improving the status of the eastern churches outside their own homelands.