G
gurneyhalleck1
Guest
I’m ok with it! And the filioque! 
Change gears. How about Transubstantiation?
Change gears. How about Transubstantiation?
We might actually be on the same page here. I would equate your “proper instruction” with the necessary spiritual fruit of understanding that must first be achieved before any demands to remove filioque can be justified.With proper instruction, I don;t see that happening on a large scale.
It is different because the theological premise of the Latins is different from the theological permise of the Easterns. There is no problem with removing filioque from the theological perspective of the Easterns, but removing filioque from the Latin theological perspective has some heterodox ramifications.The Ruthenians had the filioque for a long while, and then after Vatican II, it was taken out and there were no problems at all. I don;t see it being any different for the latin or western Church except possilbly on a small scale similar to the number of sedevacantists today.
That there is a real and true change in the bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ? Who would object to that?Change gears. How about Transubstantiation?
Of course I’m aware of that. I think I even alluded to it. I said in an earlier post “In fact, Pope Benedict (or JP2) recited the Creed without the filioque when meeting with Patriach Bartholomew. So its not a problem.” In the post where you are quoting me, I was talking about how in the Latin Mass the filioque is recited. The Greek was not even an issue I raised at all. Of course I know its not in the Greek. But let me ask you, do you believe that the filioque as the Latin Church understands it, is a heresy?You are aware that when the Pope recites the creed in Greek…it NEVER has the filioque?
And the official Creed does NOT have the filioque? Rome has stated the the creed that does contain the filioque is a liturgical concession.
Then it seems the key is what exactly does “procedit” mean in today’s English? “Proceeds” seems rather lame description for Deity. Would it be better for the East and West to remove the entire clause out? Just asking for opinions.Even when saying the Roman mass in Greek, the filioque is not used, as in greek, it requires a rewording much more drastic than “and the son” to avoid being heretical.
This is because the greek uses ekporosis, not proenai. (spelling?) Ekporousis from the father and son IS heresy. Proenai is not. But the creedo latinae uses procedit where the greek uses Ekporousis, and procedit is much closer in meaning to Proenai…
It’s perfect the way it is.How about Transubstantiation?
That would be my conclusion too, if “proceeds” leads one to think of equivalence and substance leads one to think of equivalence. But is it really? (“sub” means {“under, inferior, secondary, less than, in place of, secretly”})Fully apprised of the theology of the Latin Creed on the matter of filioque (i.e., to denote the sharing of the Divine Essence among the three Persons of the Trinity), I can imagine some schismatic sect claiming one of the following:
(1) You used to teach that the Spirit is consubstantial with the Father and the Son. Now, you deny that the Spirit is consubstantial with the Son, which is heresy.
I mean, I know the East uses a different philosophy to explain the change. I forget what it is.That there is a real and true change in the bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ? Who would object to that?
Blessings,
Marduk
The term transubstantiation relies on Aristotle’s notions of FORM and SUBSTANCE. (Plato spoke on Form and Substance too, but I think this comes from the more developed thought of Aristotle on the subject.)I mean, I know the East uses a different philosophy to explain the change. I forget what it is.
The term transubstantiation relies on Aristotle’s notions of FORM and SUBSTANCE. (Plato spoke on Form and Substance too, but I think this comes from the more developed thought of Aristotle on the subject.)
It is not necessary to appeal to Aristotle to explain a mystery of God. In fact it is probably unwise to do so.
Excellent question, Gurney.What is really wrong with scholasticism as long as it is the Magisterium of the Church collectively and holistically looking at it and using it to help us explain things?
Actually, it is even more complicated than this!With proper instruction, I don;t see that happening on a large scale.
The Ruthenians had the filioque for a long while, and then after Vatican II, it was taken out and there were no problems at all. I don;t see it being any different for the latin or western Church except possilbly on a small scale similar to the number of sedevacantists today.
So what is the East’s way of explaining the change?The term transubstantiation relies on Aristotle’s notions of FORM and SUBSTANCE. (Plato spoke on Form and Substance too, but I think this comes from the more developed thought of Aristotle on the subject.)
It is not necessary to appeal to Aristotle to explain a mystery of God. In fact it is probably unwise to do so.
I didn’t mention scholasticism.…What is really wrong with scholasticism as long as it is the Magisterium of the Church collectively and holistically looking at it and using it to help us explain things?
I didn’t mention scholasticism.
But as long as we are talking about holistically explaining things, I am sure the ‘church’ can dip into Indian pagan philosophy and Chinese pagan philosophy to help explain things as well. Why exclude the Indian pagan and the Chinese pagan terminology, do the Greeks have a pride of place?
The plain fact is Christians do not need an explanation of the mystery, seeking an explanation is like reaching for a crutch one has never really needed.
Jesus said it, I believe it. That’s an act of faith - not science - not philosophy.
Our faith is a revelation of God. We don’t need to test it against other thought systems. If the word of God Himself doesn’t convince one, of what use is the word of men?
RC like trans-substantiation, some Lutherans like con-substantiation. Both are flawed because they are based on the premise that we creatures can ‘figure out’ God. They might both be equally right, or even equally wrong, because the wisdom of men is foolishness before God.
Over such questions men have been burned, to what good purpose?
It is this kind of foolishness that divides the body of Christ, and pits one man against another.
That is why I posted what I did, someone else suggested we have another philosophy for explaining that the Real Presense, but the fact is we don’t. We don’t need to dogmatize free speculation, studied guesses nor flights of fancy. Theological opinions should not be used to divide us or give us an excuse to condemn one another.
Our faith is a paradox, it is and will remain a mystery. We may not like that, perhaps it doesn’t satisfy one’s taste for elegant thought, but that’s all it really is.