Do Eastern Catholics obtain indulgences?

[Vico]

So just as Latin and Eastern Catholics have differences in theology regarding the afterlife centering around purgatory and other concepts, Eastern Catholics also differ amongst their rites in their theology of the afterlife? I’m sorry if this is getting redundant or my questions are confusing. I don’t know much about this topic and don’t know of any sources to research it further. I have only been able to find information about differences between Latin and Eastern Catholic theology on the afterlife (usually centering around purgatory), but I believe I have come across at least some information indicating that Easterners also have different theologies about the afterlife.

The approaches to theology and faith are different. Eastern views are apophatic (-) whereas western are cataphatic (+). We can hold to the faith without explaining everything about it positively, after all it is a Mystery. The west attempts to understand with reason, with positive assertions, which although logical, understate the wonders. Both approaches teach the revealed truth.

So, applied to afterlife, we have a common practice to pray for those departed, but is there a common explanation for what happens after death? What is common is in scripture, but the Fathers and Doctors of the Church have commented on them differently. If it becomes defined as dogma of faith, then we are to accept it.

For the Catholic churches of the tradition of Constantinople, Revelations (mostly it is Jewish imagery from the Talmud) is not read in public and there is no dogmatic interpretation from it.

At the minimum, those that have died await the resurrection of the dead and the Parousia (most uses are from the New Testament).

Byzantine Litany for the Deceased Deacon: Have mercy on us, O God, according to your great mercy, we pray you, hear and have mercy.

Reponse: Lord, have mercy. (Three times)

Deacon: Again we pray for the repose of the soul of the departed servant of God, (Name/s), and that (his-her-their) every transgression, voluntary and involuntary, be forgiven.

Response: Lord, have mercy. (Three times)

Deacon: May the Lord God commit (his-her-their) soul to the place where the just repose.

Reponse: Lord, have mercy. (Three times)

Deacon: For the mercy of God, for the kingdom of heaven, and for the remission of (his-her-their) sins, let us beseech Christ, the immortal King and our God.

Response: Grant this of Lord.

Deacon: Let us pray to the Lord.

Reponse: Lord, have mercy.

The celebrant prays aloud:

O God of spirits and of all flesh, you trampled death and broke the power of the devil and granted life to your world. Now grant rest, O Lord, to the soul of your departed servant (Name/s), in a place of light, joy, and peace where there is no pain, sorrow, nor mourning. As a good and loving God, forgive every sin committed by (him-her-them) in word, deed, or thought, since there is no one who lives and does not sin. You alone are without sin; your justice is eternal justice; and your word is truth.

For you, O Christ our God, are the resurrection, the life, and the repose of your departed servant (Name/s), and we give glory to you, with your eternal Father, and your all-holy, good, and life-creating Spirit, now and ever and forever.

Response: Amen.

 

[Richca]

I still get confused by exactly what that means. I’ve asked about this on other parts of the forum, too, but still don’t understand it. Is an unhealthy attachment to creatures a tendency to sin, the habit of sin? If so, I would imagine many people who are baptized still have a habit of sin or an attachment to sin, yet the Latin teaching is that if a newly baptized person should be killed prior to sinning again, the person would bypass purgatory and go straight to heaven. I must be misunderstanding this doctrine somehow I think, but I have never been able to find a clear explanation anywhere.

Every sin carries with it a double consequence, namely, liability of guilt and liability of punishment. Mortal sin has a consequence of eternal punishment while venial sin has a consequence of temporal punishment. For a full remission or forgiveness of sin, the removal of both the guilt and punishment are necessary such as happens in baptism. Indulgences pertain to the removal of temporal punishment after a sin has already been forgiven as to its guilt. Once a sin has been forgiven by God as to its guilt such as in the sacrament of penance, there may still remain a debt of temporal punishment which is why the priest usually gives the penitent a penance or satisfactory work to perform which is usually light in character such as saying an Our Father and a Hail Mary. Indulgences can be partial or plenary which means they can be applied to remit either all the temporal punishment due to sin or part of it. They are truly a sign of God’s mercy and it is a beautiful doctrine of the Catholic Church.

 

[Defend_the_Keys]

Not sure why all these eastern “experts” are saying that Eastern Christians don’t have indulgences, becasue they certianly do. In fact, the Orthodox Church did not stop selling indulgences until the early 1900’s…a mere 350 years after the Protestant Reformation! Read more below:

orthodoxwiki.org/Absolution_Certificates

 

[J.J]

Re: Do Eastern Catholics obtain indulgences?
As a Ruthenian Byzantine – I don’t know; subject has never come up ------

SLAVA ISUSU CHRISTU!

 

[Vico]

Re: Do Eastern Catholics obtain indulgences?
As a Ruthenian Byzantine – I don’t know; subject has never come up ------

SLAVA ISUSU CHRISTU!

They may obtain partial or plenary indulgences according to the Church Enchiridion indulgentiarum quarto editur.

vatican.va/roman_curia/tribunals/apost_penit/documents/rc_trib_appen_doc_20020826_enchiridion-indulgentiarum_lt.html

 

[Vico]

Not sure why all these eastern “experts” are saying that Eastern Christians don’t have indulgences, becasue they certianly do. In fact, the Orthodox Church did not stop selling indulgences until the early 1900’s…a mere 350 years after the Protestant Reformation! Read more below:

orthodoxwiki.org/Absolution_Certificates

The reference states “These certificates were real indulgences that anyone could obtain which absolved them from sin.” It states that this occurred through western influences. That could be true, however these absolution certificates could not be equivalent to Catholic indulgences, because Catholic indulgences do not grant absolution but only are obtainable for those whose sins have already been absolved, and may be applied to oneself or for the faithfully departed.

 

[Defend_the_Keys]

The reference states “These certificates were real indulgences that anyone could obtain which absolved them from sin.” It states that this occurred through western influences. That could be true, however these absolution certificates could not be equivalent to Catholic indulgences, because Catholic indulgences do not grant absolution but only are obtainable for those whose sins have already been absolved, and may be applied to oneself or for the faithfully departed.

I assume that it is a mistranslation as the source is from a Russian Orthodox website, although the link now appears to be broken. I’m guessing it should read “absolved them from the temporal punishment from sin.”

I do find it rather odd that OrthoWiki blames this practice on the Catholic Church’s influence on the Greek Orthodox, in other words, a “latinization.” I’m not sure how this can be justified when the practice in of selling indulgences continued for roughly 400 years after the Catholic Church ended it. That is longer than the practice even existed in the Catholic Church, and Popes are known to have repeatedly condemned the practice of indulgence abuse for hundreds of years before Martin Luther. Also within Orthodoxy, the selling of the Absolution Certificates was done with the full knowledge of prominent Patriarchs who themselves engaged in the practice. It seems to me that some Orthodox ownership needs to be taken here…

 

[Vico]

I assume that it is a mistranslation as the source is from a Russian Orthodox website, although the link now appears to be broken. I’m guessing it should read “absolved them from the temporal punishment from sin.”

I do find it rather odd that OrthoWiki blames this practice on the Catholic Church’s influence on the Greek Orthodox, in other words, a “latinization.” I’m not sure how this can be justified when the practice in of selling indulgences continued for roughly 400 years after the Catholic Church ended it. That is longer than the practice even existed in the Catholic Church, and Popes are known to have repeatedly condemned the practice of indulgence abuse for hundreds of years before Martin Luther. Also within Orthodoxy, the selling of the Absolution Certificates was done with the full knowledge of prominent Patriarchs who themselves engaged in the practice. It seems to me that some Orthodox ownership needs to be taken here…

It seems unlikely that Orthodox would use the phrase “temporal punishment” being no particular emphasis on mortal and venial sins, although some sins are more serious. Bishop Tikhon of San Francisco & the West is given as the translator.

Perhaps they were issued only after Holy Confession was completed?

 

[Paleocon]

Do Eastern Catholics obtain indulgences? How do they understand this practice? How does it fit into Eastern theology?

Eastern Catholics believe* in Catholic teaching on purgatory and thus have no reason not to acquire indulgences. Of course it is not required to specifically intend every indulgence one receives.

*There are of course members of every part of the Catholic Church who believe heresies against the faith, and some of these people will pretend their beliefs aren’t heretical, but they don’t represent any ritual Church.