This all started with a conflict over word choice- “penance” or “repentance”? If you could address the significance of those choices here, maybe talk about the validity of setting up the choices in that way, and discuss the implications of choosing one over the other, that would be a start. We aren’t really looking at the language, though, and we’re talking about assigning words to an exchange that don’t appear in the exchange itself. There’s nothing wrong with that, of course, but it also means we can’t pick a Greek word from the text and compare it to all the same Greek words in the New Testament. It winds up being treated more like something in isolation.
Additionally, this still has something to do with the whole transition from “penance” to “repentance” that I was on about earlier…in my first post, actually, which you transitioned from but were unwilling to talk about. From my perspective, I feel like I’ve presented an argument whereby the word “penance” (as it is now used) never appears in the Bible, and while the word is used 53 different times when you’re speaking a more ancient form of English, it was used no differently than “repentance” is now used in all the modern translations. Furthermore, the modern meaning of the word “penance” means it has no place in any English translation of the Bible.
Again, this is just my perspective, but it seems like you’ve sailed right past that point, conceded (to a certain extent) that this is true, and moved on to show me where a clear example of penance happens even if the word itself is not used. And again, there’s nothing wrong with doing this, but I’m just checking to see if that is, indeed, what you intended to do. And as far as giving advice to the OP (which I’m sure is on your mind), would you advise that the OP concede that “penance” is not a legitimate translation of 2 Peter 3:9 into modern English but that the OP should pursue examples of penance being demonstrated even if no related words are actually used?