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MH84
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**John 8
54Jesus replied, “If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing. My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me. 55Though you do not know him, I know him. If I said I did not, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and keep his word. 56Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad.”
57"You are not yet fifty years old," the Jews said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!”
biblegateway.com/passage/58"I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” 59At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds. **
1. Do Jews actually believe that Jesus did say “I Am” (John 8:58) in the way which is equivalent to YHWH? If so, do they just believe that Jesus was lying or wrongly believed Himself to be God? Or do they believe that the evangelist got the interpretation wrong? Do Jews believe that this verse was an interpolation put in by later Christians?
2. What else could “I am” mean in the context that Jesus said this in? For instance He didnt say “I am…”, He just said “I am” (full stop).
**3. If no other rabbi ever even dared to call himself by the divine name, why didnt they stop and give Jesus some more time to explain Himself? This was something big that no other Jew even thought possible (that a man was calling himself YHWH).
If some of the Jews were starting to believe in Him because of His teaching and miracles, why did they all of a sudden believe that he was doing something wrong by calling Himself “I Am” (John 8:58).**
4. Does “I Am” and “I Am Who I Am” mean exactly the same as each other? In other words, does the name said by God to Moses and the name said by Jesus to the people mean exactly the same each other? It seems to be, because God (in the OT) also said, "This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.’ " (Exodus 3:14)