Do Orthodox believe Catholic infant baptism by pouring (not immersion) to be valid?

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I don’t buy that even for a moment. Don’t they agree with the explanations and definitions given by the Council of Nicea on the mystery of the Trinity? Of course they do. Perhaps they should drop these explanations then if they want to be consistent.
Your attitude is what makes me not want to answer you. You come off as if you are just waiting to turn around and tell us that we are wrong the moment we answer your question. I have alway told you that we do not baptize without chrismation, and therefore, we don’t really talk about when one receives the Holy Spirit, just that It is received by time of chrismation. I am sorry if you are dissatisfied with this answer, but that’s probably all you’re going to get.
 
Since the baptism and the ordination of the Roman Pope were without grace according to the E. Orthodox Church, would that mean that he is only a layperson and not an ordained priest or bishop in their view?
Let my clarify my earlier response. From an Orthodox point of view the Pope, being “without grace”, is outside the Church. Therefore it makes as little sense to call him a layman (part of the laos, the people of God) as to call him an Orthodox priest.

(This is not my view, of course - I believe that the Holy Father is indeed born again, that he is the pre-eminent pastor of Christians, and in this case most likely a living saint, or at least a far holier man than I.)

The Orthodox have unfortunately not developed the concept of the “subsistence” of the Church which would acknowledge the possibility of grace outside their own jurisdictions.
 
I have alway told you that we do not baptize without chrismation, and therefore, we don’t really talk about when one receives the Holy Spirit, just that It is received by time of chrismation. I am sorry if you are dissatisfied with this answer, but that’s probably all you’re going to get.
Well, I asked because there are some instances in scripture where baptism was done without simultaneous chrismation. See this thread of mine -
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=608429

So my question is, what would be the Orthodox position about these baptisms? Were they really without the Holy Spirit? Now don’t tell me the Orthodox are not allowed to comment on the scriptures as well!
 
Hello all.

Let me first say I am neither Orthadox or Roman Catholic. I am from the Anglican side of the house. Here is what I would say to each side;
To my Orthadox brothers I would say you are correct to this extent bapitism by immersionais the norm as set forth in the Holy Scritures. Howeverr unde bring her back r the canons and practice and doctrine of the undivided church, baptism by pouring was accepted as the propper matter and the outward sign was water with out any requirement as to the method of applying the sign. The application would be the use which was open to each jurisdiction. Therefore, baptism by pouring whether by A Roman Catholic, or others who practice infant baptism is valid. See the book of Acts where houshould baptisms were performed. There is one faith, one Lord, and onebaptism, one God and Father of all. Finally, it is my opinion that to require validly baptised be rebabptised is not proper and has no scritural support. This negates any claim that Eastern Orthdoxy is the true church. See the following paragph. When the Patriach excomminicated the entore western instead of the scriptural solution of calling for a genral counsil of the church it erred. It must be noted, the Patriach was well within his rights to reject both demands.

I say this to my Roman Brethen. To claim for Rome that its bisihip ordanary to be hte visible head of the church with membership therin required for salvation is highy arrogant and historically false. An unbiased look at church history shows that while there was a church in Rome, the term Roman Catholic came into use alog with the term Eastern Ortthodox only after the great schism of 1054.whcic split the church in half. History also tells us that the roman bishop made claim to universal jusidiction several times and was soundly and repeatedly rejected by the undivided church. Further, when the Pope oversteped his canonical and ecclisiastical authoirty by demanding the eastern half of the church add the filioque and threatening excomunication by not adding the filioque and acceprting him and the head of the church, he broke with the polity, canon law and theology of the undivied church. The polity of the early church was Jesus Christ was the head of the church and the apolsotlic and canonic authority handed to the Aposltes by Christ himself and extended to the Bishop was the bishops exercise of that authority was limited to the diocese of that particular bishop. Addittionly, while I believe the filioque to e correct and scriptural, the church approved version as set forth in the Counsil of Constantinople in 381 did not contain the filioque and was the official doctrime of the undivided church. To change the creed would have taken a general counsil ith the bishop of Rome could have ask for according to Acts. The Patriach of Constantinople could have done this as wll but it must be noted The Patriach was well within his rights to reject both demands. Finally, the contined existance of both Protestantism and Eastern Orthadoxy of the RCC’s ongoing error and prima facie evidence denial of the canons and counsils of the early undivided church.

I hope my two cents worth has helped.
 
Hello all.

Let me first say I am neither Orthadox or Roman Catholic. I am from the Anglican side of the house. Here is what I would say to each side;
To my Orthadox brothers I would say you are correct to this extent bapitism by immersionais the norm as set forth in the Holy Scritures. Howeverr unde bring her back r the canons and practice and doctrine of the undivided church, baptism by pouring was accepted as the propper matter and the outward sign was water with out any requirement as to the method of applying the sign. The application would be the use which was open to each jurisdiction. Therefore, baptism by pouring whether by A Roman Catholic, or others who practice infant baptism is valid. See the book of Acts where houshould baptisms were performed. There is one faith, one Lord, and onebaptism, one God and Father of all. Finally, it is my opinion that to require validly baptised be rebabptised is not proper and has no scritural support. This negates any claim that Eastern Orthdoxy is the true church. See the following paragph. When the Patriach excomminicated the entore western instead of the scriptural solution of calling for a genral counsil of the church it erred. It must be noted, the Patriach was well within his rights to reject both demands.
👍
I say this to my Roman Brethen. To claim for Rome that its bisihip ordanary to be hte visible head of the church with membership therin required for salvation is highy arrogant and historically false.
I do not think it is either arrogant or historically false to require mutual communion as the condition of Christian love, including communion with the visible sign or sacrament of unity. He is, to quote St. Gregory Palamas (Homily XXVIII, p. 223 in Christopher Veniamin’s translation) the “foundation stone” and “shepherd and chief pastor over His whole church” (p. 224). St. Ephrem of Syria puts into Christ’s words to Peter “I I have chosen you to be, as it were, the firstborn of My institution, and so that, as the heir, you may be the executor of My treasures. I have given you authority over all My treasures;” Tertullian (De Pudicitia) calls him the “Sovereign Pontiff, the Bishop of Bishops”, and our beloved Father St. Maximos the Confessor will write of "the blessed Pope of the holy Roman church - that is, to the Apostolic See - to which belong government, authority, and power to bind and to loose over all the churches that are in the world, in all things and in every way” (Letter to Peter, in Mansi, x, 692). And St. Jerome, a Father for the Orthodox as well as the Roman Catholics, will say “to follow Christ is to be in communion with the Pope, and therein lies the only security”. It follows pretty straightforwardly from the authority vested in Peter as Prince of the Apostles.
An unbiased look at church history shows that while there was a church in Rome, the term Roman Catholic came into use alog with the term Eastern Ortthodox only after the great schism of 1054.whcic split the church in half. History also tells us that the roman bishop made claim to universal jusidiction several times and was soundly and repeatedly rejected by the undivided church. Further, when the Pope oversteped his canonical and ecclisiastical authoirty by demanding the eastern half of the church add the filioque and threatening excomunication by not adding the filioque and acceprting him and the head of the church, he broke with the polity, canon law and theology of the undivied church.
Your history is simply wrong. No Pope has EVER insisted that the Eastern Churches add the filioque to the Creed. My ancestors came from southern Italy where Roman Catholics and Greek Catholics have always lived side-by-side in communion with each other (although they were almost all Greek until the Norman invasion), and we have never said the filioque. Byzantine Catholics do not say the filioque. Occasionally Polish troops occupying Ukraine would barge into temples and force congregations to add the phrase at gunpoint, but that was not the policy of the Church. It was the policy of Polish barbarians who also martyred St. Josaphat of Polotsk for coming into communion with Rome and tainting the otherwise pure Latin constitution of the Church. The Filioque was said during the Creed at the reunion councils as a way of affirming its truth, not as a change of discipline.

What the Pope did - not necessarily all too prudently - was grudgingly PERMIT it to be said in Spain as a way of combatting the Arian heresy, and from there it ended up being added to the Creed by ignorant Frankish scribes. It was always treated with suspicion by Rome, even to the point when Pope Leo had the Creed inscribed in gold plates without the filioque and hung in St. Peter’s Basilica.
I hope my two cents worth has helped.
Oh, and greetings from Columbus, by the way! Do you happen to know of an Anglican church in the town that says Evensong? It’s a service I would like to hear. I’m not as familiar with the Anglican tradition as I would like to be.

I’ve been looking for a church with evening services (like an Episcopalian one) to get a job as an organist (in the evening so I can still go to Divine Liturgy every week) - is Evensong a service that uses organ, or am I barking up the wrong tree by looking for Episcopalian churches?
 
Well, I asked because there are some instances in scripture where baptism was done without simultaneous chrismation. See this thread of mine -
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=608429

So my question is, what would be the Orthodox position about these baptisms? Were they really without the Holy Spirit? Now don’t tell me the Orthodox are not allowed to comment on the scriptures as well!
Well, again, we can’t really know. The passage quoted there seems to imply that they hadn’t received the Spirit yet, which is why the apostles laid hands on them. Whether this means that the Spirit can only be received through the laying on of hands or if people can receive the Spirit separate of this act, we cannot say. There’s no real need to speculate on the mechanics of the sacred mysteries, only to perform them and have faith that God acts upon us in a real way through them.
 
Let my clarify my earlier response. From an Orthodox point of view the Pope, being “without grace”, is outside the Church. Therefore it makes as little sense to call him a layman (part of the laos, the people of God) as to call him an Orthodox priest.

(This is not my view, of course - I believe that the Holy Father is indeed born again, that he is the pre-eminent pastor of Christians, and in this case most likely a living saint, or at least a far holier man than I.)

The Orthodox have unfortunately not developed the concept of the “subsistence” of the Church which would acknowledge the possibility of grace outside their own jurisdictions.
I don’t think that’s true at all. Take metropolitan Hilarion who had this to say about Roman Catholic mysteries:
Actually there is a mutual recognition of the Mysteries. We do not have communion in the Mysteries, but we recognize each other’s Mysteries. For example, if a Catholic priest converts to Orthodoxy, we accept him as a priest, and not ordain him again. This means that de facto we recognize the sacraments of the Catholic Church.
 
Let my clarify my earlier response. From an Orthodox point of view the Pope, being “without grace”, is outside the Church. Therefore it makes as little sense to call him a layman (part of the laos, the people of God) as to call him an Orthodox priest…
So you say that according to the Orthodox, the Pope of Rome is not even a layman, since he is without grace. Would you also say that heathens are without grace? If so, since the Pope is also without grace, or at least his baptism and holy orders are without grace, would that mean that according to the Holy Orthodox Church, both the Pope of Rome and the heathen are in the same boat, since both are outside the Church and without grace?
 
So you say that according to the Orthodox, the Pope of Rome is not even a layman, since he is without grace. Would you also say that heathens are without grace? If so, since the Pope is also without grace, or at least his baptism and holy orders are without grace, would that mean that according to the Holy Orthodox Church, both the Pope of Rome and the heathen are in the same boat, since both are outside the Church and without grace?
I think that to say that would be a misrepresentation of what the Orthodox believe. See what metropolitan Hilarion said in my post above (and he’s from the Russian Orthodox Church which has a reputation for being unsupportive of ecumenism). The very fact that we typically receive Catholic priests by vesting means that there is a de facto recognition of Roman Catholic Sacraments.
 
So you say that according to the Orthodox, the Pope of Rome is not even a layman, since he is without grace. Would you also say that heathens are without grace? If so, since the Pope is also without grace, or at least his baptism and holy orders are without grace, would that mean that according to the Holy Orthodox Church, both the Pope of Rome and the heathen are in the same boat, since both are outside the Church and without grace?
The Orthodox (with ecumenist exceptions like Metropolitan Hilarion) would say this. I think saying that the Pope and the heathen are “in the same boat” is a little far, since Catholicism preserves some vestige of Christianity or Christian culture (but many Orthodox will NOT say that Catholics are Christian - see Dostoyevsky’s The Idiot, for example).

Again, this is hardly my view. But it’s what I’ve been told by Orthodox priests and read in pamphlets by Orthodox monks, mostly hardliners. And I’ve been told by a “canonical” Serbian Orthodox priest that the Ecumenical Patriarch isn’t Orthodox either because he’s too friendly towards Rome.
 
I think that to say that would be a misrepresentation of what the Orthodox believe. See what metropolitan Hilarion said in my post above (and he’s from the Russian Orthodox Church which has a reputation for being unsupportive of ecumenism). The very fact that we typically receive Catholic priests by vesting means that there is a de facto recognition of Roman Catholic Sacraments.
No, it doesn’t necessarily - it just means that their sacraments become graced when they are received into Orthodoxy. It’s kind of fuzzy theology, but the principle is that the Church supplies the grace to otherwise defective sacraments when they become Orthodox.
 
I don’t buy that even for a moment. Don’t they agree with the explanations and definitions given by the Council of Nicea on the mystery of the Trinity? Of course they do. Perhaps they should drop these explanations then if they want to be consistent.
And you’d expect with this attitude that anyone would bother to speak to you? I based my information on discussions with Orthodox priests that were being up front to me about it. And you’re trying to talk to Orthodox Christians like they’re Protestants in the first place.
 
Well, I asked because there are some instances in scripture where baptism was done without simultaneous chrismation. See this thread of mine -
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=608429

So my question is, what would be the Orthodox position about these baptisms? Were they really without the Holy Spirit? Now don’t tell me the Orthodox are not allowed to comment on the scriptures as well!
This is your example.
Catholics believe that the we receive the Holy Spirit at baptism. However, look what Acts 8:14-17
“Now when the apostles at Jerusalem heard that Sama’ria had received the word of God, they sent to them Peter and John, who came down and prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit; for it had not yet fallen on any of them, but they had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Then they laid their hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit.”
The verse is suggesting that Christians didn’t receive the Holy Spirit at baptism, but they had to wait for the apostles to lay hands on them in order to receive the Holy Spirit.
How to address this?
newadvent.org/cathen/02258b.htm
In addition to the necessary word “baptize”, or its equivalent, it is also obligatory to mention the separate Persons of the Holy Trinity.
In this verse there is baptism in the name of Jesus only.

In the Western Rite, Chrism is used at Baptism. In Confirmation Chrism is used at Confirmation. Baptism is regenaration, entry into the Church and grace. Gifts of the spirit are infused at Baptism and perfected at Confirmation. In consideration that the Orthodox do not distinguish Baptism/Chrismation as needing time before administration then the effects are the same in the East and the West. Whatever it is you believe to be the case in the West is the same in the East with exception to the time between the Sacraments.👍

So with that understanding ask this. Eastern Orthodox, Eastern Catholic, Western Catholic all are baptized? Yes. All are confirmed at some point? Yes. All receive the same regeneration? Yes. All receive the gifts of the Holy Spirit and all are seen as children of God? Yes. This is Mystery.👍

Your question as to the mechanics may I ask the reason, the value, and how it strengthens your Faith and the Faith of others or is that a Mystery?🤷
 
This is like asking, ‘When do you receive Christ, when you eat His body of drink His blood?’ In the Eucharist you receive Christ in two different ways. In Baptism you receive the Holy Spirit in two different ways. You are born from the womb of the Holy Spirit in water and you are anointed by the Holy Spirit with oil. You don’t confuse the two, nor do you separate the two.
 
This is like asking, ‘When do you receive Christ, when you eat His body of drink His blood?’ In the Eucharist you receive Christ in two different ways. In Baptism you receive the Holy Spirit in two different ways. You are born from the womb of the Holy Spirit in water and you are anointed by the Holy Spirit with oil. You don’t confuse the two, nor do you separate the two.
go the Mass is ended. And all God’s children said Amen.
 
And you’d expect with this attitude that anyone would bother to speak to you? I based my information on discussions with Orthodox priests that were being up front to me about it. And you’re trying to talk to Orthodox Christians like they’re Protestants in the first place.
And you thought I was being silly. 😃

In Christ,
Andrew
 
And you’d expect with this attitude that anyone would bother to speak to you? I based my information on discussions with Orthodox priests that were being up front to me about it. And you’re trying to talk to Orthodox Christians like they’re Protestants in the first place.
Well, they are in a way! If they can treat us as such, they shouldn’t be all upset if we do the same.
 
In this verse there is baptism in the name of Jesus only.
Many Catholic apologists including Jimmy Akin argue that “baptism in the name of Jesus” was a shorthand for “baptism in the name of the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit”.
Your question as to the mechanics may I ask the reason, the value, and how it strengthens your Faith and the Faith of others or is that a Mystery?🤷
Actually, it doesn’t strengthen my faith, but rather it is a good argument that is weakening my faith in Catholic teaching. Catholic teaching says that Holy Spirit is received at baptism, whereas the verses that I saw were suggesting that it is not so and the Spirit is received only at confirmation. So I asked the Orthodox Christians as to what they believed, just thinking that perhaps the Catholic church got this one wrong.

But I am disappointed with the whole “mystery” thing and therefore my outburst. If the Orthodox can accept the definitions of the mystery of the Trinity, then why shy away when it comes to the other mysteries of the faith?
 
John1: 32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. 33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, **Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, **the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.

Mat3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.16 **And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:**17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, **This is my beloved Son, **in whom I am well pleased.

Acts2:do? 38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ **for the remission of sins, **and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

“For the remission of sins…”
a clear statement of the holy spirit acting
 
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