J
john_doran
Guest
the adequation of the intellect to the thing known is knowledge.It isn’t absurd if the definition of truth is the correspondence of the intellect to reality. In that case, in order for there to be truth, there must be a mind.
so what do i know if i know “it is raining”, and it is raining? what do i know if i know “the proposition ‘every even number is the sum of two primes’ is true”?
more to the point, how do you parse, “every even number is the sum of two primes”? what makes that statement true (or false)? to what do its referring terms refer?
aquinothmas:
no. propositions are the bearers of truth values; the mind knows truth by knowing propositions that have the property of being true.I suppose this is as good a time as any to raise this issue. If I’m understanding the theory of propositions that you are asserting, there are two potential “truth relationships”. The first relationship is between a proposition, and reality. If the proposition corresponds to reality, then it is the bearer of “truth”. If it does not, then it is the bearer of “falsehood”. The second relationship is between our minds and propositions. If our mind has as its intentional object a true proposition, then we might say that the mind knows truth.
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so there’s no truths about possible worlds without minds? literally, one can say nothing true about those worlds? it’s not even true that there are no minds? it’s not true that everything in those worlds is self-identical?We can explain this by the definition of truth as the correspondence of the mind with reality (being). You seem to be saying that propositions are necessary in order to explain truth in possible worlds where minds do not exist. But, if truth is the correspondence of mind with reality (nothing more, and nothing less), then it’s moot to talk about truth in a world without minds.
if you actually believe this, then we have reached the limits of our discourse, since what you’re saying is, to me, self-evidently nonsensical.
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A) again, that is the definition of knowledge, and simply saying that one knows only when one’s mind is equated with reality in no way decides what objects are part of the furniture of reality.The ancient Latin definition of what I’m talking about is adequatio rei et intellectus - an equality between mind and reality. This isn’t idealism, it’s realism, but the definition of truth is the measure of mind in accordance with reality.
that is to say, i agree that knowledge is the adequation of mind and thing, but assert also that one of the things with which our minds can be adequated is propositions (and states of affairs, and facts, and…).
B) i consider myself a realist with regard to abstract objects: i take abstract objects to be real.
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so what are the bearers of truth-values, again? you had at one point agreed that*** something*** needed to bear the properties of truth and falsity***/ ***now you seem to be suggesting the contrary (and decidedly empiricist) position that truth is a (triadic?) relational property between something like minds, thoughts/utterances, and the world.With this definition, I’m assuming that as a precondition of truth, that reality is intelligible. It seems contradictory to talk about truth apart from intelligibility. But if reality is inherently intelligible, then it was designed to be that way. And, if there is teleology, then there is a divine mind, whose knowledge is in fact creative. Therefore, it’s contradictory to speak of an intelligible universe without any minds. Because of this, we can speak of reality thus: omne ens est verum; ens et verum convertuntur - every being is true, and the true and being are interchangeable.
which is it?