Do the Catholic reasons for annulment apply universally to other faiths?

[Ben_Sinner]

For example,

Marrying under the age of consent is invalid for a Catholic wedding.

BUT…

If some religion considered a marriage between two children under the age of consent valid, would the Church still consider that a valid marriage if those two children got married within that religion?

It is said that The Church considers non-Catholic weddings (between non-Catholics) valid as long as the religion those people practiced considered it valid.

Now if one of those children grew up as an adult and wanted to get that previous marriage annulled, would The Church grant that annulment?

 

[Ben_Sinner]

I should also add another hypothetical.

What if the above marriage between the children was also allowed by the state?

Another question that would arise would be a marriage between a homosexual couple. It is considered valid by the state and valid withing some religions, would The Church also have to consider that valid?

 

[Bookcat]

Some yes some no.

For example,

Marrying under the age of consent is invalid for a Catholic wedding.

BUT…

If some religion considered a marriage between two children under the age of consent valid, would the Church still consider that a valid marriage if those two children got married within that religion?They would have to be old enough. Like two 5 year olds are not going to be married…

It is said that The Church considers non-Catholic weddings (between non-Catholics) valid as long as the religion those people practiced considered it valid.

such would not be necessarily correct.

Now if one of those children grew up as an adult and wanted to get that previous marriage annulled, would The Church grant that annulment?

The Church could look into whatever marriage - and see if it was valid.

 

[Bookcat]

I should also add another hypothetical.

What if the above marriage between the children was also allowed by the state?

Another question that would arise would be a marriage between a homosexual couple. It is considered valid by the state and valid withing some religions, would The Church also have to consider that valid?

No state in the US is going to allow children of say age 5 to marry. And even if they did - it would not be valid.

 

[PaulfromIowa]

If someone married at a very young age, say 13, in a country where that was legal and that person divorced and petitioned the Church for a decree of nullity based upon immaturity, I would think it likely that the tribunal would grant that petition. If the person stayed married, the Church would, of course, assume validity.

The Church can never recognize homosexual “marriages” as marriages.

 

[ComplineSanFran]

No state in the US is going to allow children of say age 5 to marry. And even if they did - it would not be valid.

No, but many US states allow children 15 and younger to marry with permission from family and sometimes the court. I believe Mexico has a very young age of consent also.

 

[ToeInTheWater]

I actually do know of a Mexican girl who married at the age of 12 and gave birth to her first child at 13. It was definitely a legal marriage, I saw a copy of the certificate with her age on it. (The husband was only 18, so it wasn’t quite as shocking as some cases of young marriage in which girls are married off to much older men. 12 year old girls dating 18 year old boys isn’t that uncommon, though likely not a good idea for most.)

However, I don’t know if that is still a valid age of marriage in that country today.

It seems to me that some of these cases, in which a bond being null is obvious, might be candidates for the streamlined nullity process instituted by Pope Francis.

I am curious about the Church’s take on polygamous marriages, though. Is the first marriage automatically considered valid? I have heard that some missionaries that evangelized people who practiced polygamy, did not actually insist on polygamists keeping only the first wife and dismissing the others, but essentially saw all the marriages as invalid, and let Christian converts choose a wife to wed in the Church, even if she wasn’t the first wife.

And if there is some reason that first marriage is not valid and it is declared null, then does the second marriage automatically become valid, or would it need to be co-validated?

 

[1ke]

Do the Catholic reasons for annulment apply universally to other faiths?

Divine law applies to everyone.
Ecclesial law applies to Catholics.

For example,

Marrying under the age of consent is invalid for a Catholic wedding.

BUT…

If some religion considered a marriage between two children under the age of consent valid, would the Church still consider that a valid marriage if those two children got married within that religion?

This is an ecclesial law, therefore it applies to Catholics or those marrying Catholics. If non-Catholics marry, they are not bound by Canon 1083. It has nothing to do with what their religion teaches or doesn’t teach. They are not bound by 1083.

It is said that The Church considers non-Catholic weddings (between non-Catholics) valid -]as long as the religion those people practiced considered it valid./-]

That may be said, but it is not correct.

Two non-Catholics marry validly if they have no impediments.

Now if one of those children grew up as an adult and wanted to get that previous marriage annulled, would The Church grant that annulment?

Not based solely on the impediment of age established in 1083, because it doesn’t apply to non-Catholics. There would likely be other grounds on which to petition.

 

[Ben_Sinner]

Two non-Catholics marry validly if they have no impediments.

Not based solely on the impediment of age established in 1083, because it doesn’t apply to non-Catholics.

Whats the difference between these impediments you mentioned?

 

[1ke]

Whats the difference between these impediments you mentioned?

Divine law applies to everyone.
Ecclesial law applies to Catholics.