C
Clarencew
Guest
I have just discovered that Matthew 17:5 and Mark 1:11 are translated differently in different versions of the Bible. In many versions of the Bible we read ‘This is my Beloved Son’. In the New Jerusalem Bible, which, I understand, references texts written prior to Latin translations, we read “This is my Son, the Beloved”. I am astounded by the implications of this difference. In the first, ‘Beloved’ is used as an adjective. In the second a noun. In other words God is saying that Jesus is both Son (noun) and Beloved (also noun) ie God is effectively saying that Jesus’ name is Beloved! Could God be saying that Jesus also has a divine name, that name being ‘Beloved’? Is this how the original (non-Latin) scripts read?