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FrDavid96
Guest
First of all, I don’t understand why some people (not you as such, but just some people here) have such a problem with history when it comes to reading the Bible. Again: that is not directed at you.Joseph and Mary offered the poor peoples sacrifice at the temple. How would your theory fit in with that?
Archeology (and common sense) tell us that a carpenter was a skilled profession and carpenters had a middle-class income. There is nothing in that knowledge that challenges the Christian faith in the least way.
There is a definite theme in this thread that popular piety somehow overrules known facts. It is most unfortunate. Art and popular piety that developed centuries after the fact, don’t change the facts of history.
Archeology tells us that carpenters in that time and place made a good income. Why should that bother anyone?
Let me be clear: I am not saying that I think you have a problem with it, but others in this thread certainly do have a problem with historical facts.
Now, to get back to your question:
The requirement was to offer “a ransom” sacrifice.
I don’t know how strict the law was with regard to substituting a turtledove and pigeon (total 2 of each) for a lamb. I don’t know what was the cutoff point in terms of income.
However, being unable to afford a lamb would have been very poor indeed; pretty much destitute. If they could not afford a lamb, then neither could they have afforded to make the trip from Nazareth to Jerusalem. So that tells me that they actually could afford a lamb, but for some reason they were permitted to substitute the dove and pigeon.
It might even be that they were permitted the substitution because of the distance involved. There was no reason why it had to be done at the Temple, so the entire trip was optional for them.
It might be that Luke intentionally avoided mentioning the sacrifice of a lamb as a substitute because it would be improper to sacrifice a lamb as a substitute for the Lamb of God (yes, that theme is more from John, but nevertheless it might apply).
Luke was a Greek, not a Jew. Therefore he might have been quoting the law and he got the important part right while missing the lesser detail. The Law (ie Exodus 13) itself does not mention a lamb, only a substitute sacrifice for the firstborn male.
Luke’s Gospel continues a few lines later to say that they went to Jerusalem every year, so that means they had to have the income to be able to do that. It’s about 100 miles each way. Even making good time, that’s a week’s walk (no travel on the Sabath), a week of Passover and a week back. That’s quite an annual vacation for a poor family, since they had to buy most of their food along the way. They really could not have been poor given rest of the infancy narratives.
I don’t know how much a lamb would have cost at the time. Obviously, the cost would vary by many factors. I’m trying to lookup some online conversions. I’ll get back here if I find anything.