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FrDavid96
Guest
You’re still going in a circle and trying to force something without any evidence.You “already addressed it,” but not adequately. For a faithful first century Jew who could afford a lamb to instead use the poor man’s sacrifice (for his first born son!) would require an explanation! Either he wasn’t pious, or he was poor. To say “there probably was some other reason,” is not convincing. Ockham’s razor—the simplest solution is usually the correct one. The Biblical account indicates that they were poor and that Joseph and Mary were pious, even strict, Jews. Jews were required to sacrifice a lamb. “A lamb was actually not a big expense, and only the poorest of the poor would be unable to afford one.” If they could not afford one, they could substitute. They substituted.
Logical conclusion: they were, in fact, poor but faithful Jews.
Unlikely conclusion: the Biblical account is wrong and they were middle-class, so they could afford a lamb but chose not to, which means they were also unfaithful Jews or there was some unknown reason for them to violate Jewish sacrificial laws even though they could have easily afforded not to.
If you can refute what I have posited above, please do so.
There was no requirement to sacrifice a lamb. It was a practice, but not a requirement. Some sacrifice had to be made. That was the Law.
The fact that a poor family was permitted to sacrifice a dove and pigeon in no way indicates that poverty was the only reason.
From a Christian perspective, it would make no sense that Joseph would have sacrificed a lamb to God as a substitute for sacrificing The Lamb of God Himself–which was the original meaning of the sacrifice in the first place; that an animal was given as a substitute for the firstborn male.
There is no biblical evidence to support the idea that the Holy Family was poor. It just is not there, no matter how much you try to force it.