Do we Say Jesus is a human being?

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JohnR77

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FiveLinden said:
writing about a human being
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Not wanting to derail that thread, let me start this new one here.

Many will say that Jesus is a human being.
And, I know, that at least some of them, are meaning correctly that Jesus is fully human, that He truly has a human nature.

I understand that wording can be defended, BUT

Is that really a wise choice of words ?

Note that Jesus is a Divine Person. Person is defined as a being, therefore Jesus is a Divine Being. He has both a Divine Nature and a Human Nature. He is One Person who has Two Natures. Since He is not two persons, He is not two Beings, but only one Being. Jesus, who is always Divine, is also fully human, since the Incarnation. However, it can cause problems if we speak of Him as being both a human being and a Divine being, as some could understand that to endorse the heretical position that He is two beings.
 
Yes He was. Acts 2:22.
Peter’s choice of words here should be a concern to you.
 
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JohnR77
Not wanting to derail that thread, let me start this new one here.

Many will say that Jesus is a human being.
And, I know, that at least some of them, are meaning correctly that Jesus is fully human, that He truly has a human nature.
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I understand that wording can be defended, BUT
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It depends on the definition of “human being”. I haven’t been able to locate a Catholic philosophical definition yet, but you have my interest peaked so I’ll keep looking.
If the definition includes a human body, human soul, and human person, then it would be incorrect to call Jesus a human “being”.
 
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It depends upon whether you want a true literal translation (the Greek word is “man”). However, today there seems to be a problem with using nouns that denote male gender.
The worst I case I ever came across was a choir director who said they could not use the word “hymn”. (This was from the personal experience of a friend of mine who was in that church choir.) Can you believe it !?! Things have gotten ridiculous.

Personally, I like knowing the words as Jesus, the Word of God, spoke them.
 
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JGD said:
It depends upon whether you want a true literal translation (the Greek word is “man”). However, today there seems to be a problem with using nouns that denote male gender.
The worst I case I ever came across was a choir director who said they could not use the word “hymn”. Can you believe it !?! Things have gotten ridiculous.

Personally, I like knowing the words as Jesus, the Word of God, spoke them.
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Peter used the word ‘man’ to mean both human being and male gender because he was describing Jesus.
 
Noose001

Peter used the word ‘man’ to mean both human being and male gender because he was describing Jesus.
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Of course.

Believe me, we all knew that the word “man” could refer to both male and female. We were smart enough to know from the context when it referred to all humanity and/or a single individual.
After all we all knew Gen. 1:27 God created man in his image; in the divine image he created him; male and female he created them.

I’ve noticed those who started all the uproar about “gender specific” language never seemed to be concerned about the use of the feminine “she” for “wisdom”.

BTW, I’m a woman (gender specific 🙂).
 
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The word “man” was able to encompass both Jesus as being male and part of humanity.
“Human being” eliminates His male identity.
 
So what is the difference between Human Nature and Divine Nature and how is it possible that they can logically coexist in the same person?
 
Person refers to “the identity” of a nature, not nature.
 
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Some Catechism uses of “human being/s” where the term could not include Jesus:

CCC 605 The Church, following the apostles, teaches that Christ died for all men without exception: “There is not, never has been, and never will be a single human being for whom Christ did not suffer.”

(Since Jesus’ suffering was for sins (Heb. 10:12) and He was sinless and needed no redemption, He is not included in the use of “human being” in the above CCC paragraph.

I have to leave for several hours now.
 
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No, we do not say properly that Jesus is a human being. A human being is an individually existing substance, person, and created creature of God composed of a soul and body. The human nature of Christ does not exist by itself but only in union with the person of the eternal Word. You are correct in saying that Christ is one being. The human nature of Christ is substantially united to the person and divine nature of the eternal Word. Substance is an individual being that exists by itself apart from other beings. But the human nature of Christ does not exist by itself apart from other beings but only in its union with the Word of God, it has been taken up and assumed into something higher and greater. A human being is a human person as well, but Christ is not a human person but a divine person. St Thomas Aquinas addresses these questions in his Summa Theologica, see especially Pt. III, Q. 17, art. 1-2, “Of Christ’s Unity of Being”
 
I would say that Jesus is a human being but not a human person.
He is one person possessong two natures.
Nature is what you are. Person is who you are. Jesus is both divine and human, but in his Person he is the Second Person of the Trinity.
 
I think it must since by human we usually mean limited, mortal and vulnerable. And by divine we mean unlimited, immortal and all powerful. It is a contradiction to be both at the same time. Unless…

What if our understanding of both is wrong? What if being truly human is to be divine? And only Jesus realized that and calls us to join him. That phrase from st Paul comes to mind, “My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness.” (2 Corinthians 12:9) Power made perfect in weakness? How can that be possible?
 
Christ brings the two together. In Christ the human and the divine become close. We are “divinized” as saints have said.
We as flawed human beings are brought to fulfillment because Christ has gathered up our humanity into himself.
 
Shakuhachi said:
I think it must since by human we usually mean limited, mortal and vulnerable. And by divine we mean unlimited, immortal and all powerful. It is a contradiction to be both at the same time.
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It’s one of the “mysteries” of the Christian faith we cannot fully comprehend. In Catholicism we refer to that union as the hypostatic union. (CCC 466-468 )
The term “hypostasis” also applies to the union of the 3 Divine Persons in one God. The terminology for these mysteries had to be developed - as the Catechism explains here in paragraphs 251 & 252.
That phrase from st Paul comes to mind, “My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness.” (2 Corinthians 12:9) Power made perfect in weakness? How can that be possible?
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An analogy that comes to my mind is when a strong swimmer is trying to save a drowning person. Often the drowning person continues using his own strength, kicking and flailing, grabbing onto his rescuer, etc. It’s only when he stops all attempts and lets the strong swimmer take over that his rescue can be successful.
 
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Jesus is a divine person but it is not always correct to equate being with person and vice versa.
 
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Shakuhachi said:
I think it must since by human we usually mean limited, mortal and vulnerable. And by divine we mean unlimited, immortal and all powerful. It is a contradiction to be both at the same time. Unless…

What if our understanding of both is wrong?
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It is helpful to realize and understand the meaning of “grace.” In the meaning of “grace” is the meaning also of being “divinized”, our human vocation made possible by Christ.
Catechism 1997 Grace is a participation in the life of God. It introduces us into the intimacy of Trinitarian life: by Baptism the Christian participates in the grace of Christ, the Head of his Body…
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By grace we can attain our vocation, dying to our old nature and living in the new (our human participation in the divine life) - our divinization. This is made possible in Christ, a spiritual ascent in Him, into Him who is in the Holy Trinity.
(If you repeat this around evangelicals, expect hair to ignite.) 🙂
 
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