S
Struggling
Guest
I think this idea going around that the parents’ intent has anything to do with it is ridiculous. The child is an independent being, and this “desire by proxy” thing just gets a little too Mormon for me…if anything, it is the CHURCH supplying any lack on the part of the infants, not “the parents”…While that would certainly hold true for the children of Christians who practice infant baptism (since there would have been an explicit intention to baptize them), it’s not the case for every child who dies without baptism.
But the real explanation is that grace is a free gift and that we don’t need to explicitly will ourselves to recieve it. As long as we dont explicitly reject it…we get it, because the sacraments work ex opere operato. Just like infants in regular baptism; they don’t need to intend to recieve it…it works by the mere fact that proper form and matter are used as long as no one explicitly intended it not to work…
Since infants can recieve grace in ordinary baptism by merely being passive to it…by merely non-rejecting it…I don’t see why explicit desire on the part of any person would be needed for them to recieve grace through an extraordinary granting by God.
And since infants generally haven’t explicitly rejected God’s grace…I can hope that means they recieve it. I think God would probably give it to anyone who is receptive, though he has bound us to one revealed form which obliges us.
But the parents’ desire really doesn’t come into play, and in my mind its a ridiculously complicated and contrived theory to think that it does.