G
Gorgias
Guest
If you look at it as a way that physical people are trying to make sense of an unembodied existence, then it makes sense.Yep. Furthermore, what does it mean that they were even “in” Hades? And how can they be in “compartments” if they are not physical? It’s very hard to make sense out of and that’s kind of my point.
Hmm… I don’t think so; rather, I’m asserting that a vision can be seen as a manifestation of a soul.Hmmm…so you’re making no distinction between a vision and a soul.
Again… what the ‘majority’ says makes for the correct interpretation? The Holy Spirit works as a democracy? Nahhhh…No, I mean the reverse. I don’t think they do go against the flow. I think they fit right in and so should be taken literally, as do so many believers, the majority of Christians I believe.
Again… ‘standard understanding’ of whom? I’ll agree that this is the way to read this verse on its surface, but as we’ve seen, it leads to a variety of difficulties in making coherent sense of this verse.That’s the standard understanding of the “holy city”. I know you interpret it otherwise.
LOL! So… when someone suggests to you that this passage means ‘those raised in Mt 27’ you say “no way!”; but when I demonstrate that Eusebius doesn’t believe this (based on another citation), you return to that quote and assert that it does refer to them?Seems like it. You can check out post #45 and subsequent interaction.
(In any case, I agree with your initial take on it; the Quadratus reference probably does not refer to those in Mt 27, since it refers to not only ‘resurrections’ but also ‘healings’ of Jesus!)
Lol. So when Matthew wrote:
That’s a rather facetious interpretation of what I’ve written, isn’t it? ‘Local’ doesn’t imply ‘in a two-foot-sphere around him’…! C’mon now, Vic – ridiculing an interlocutor’s statements and reducing them to an absurdity, and then asking the interlocutor to defend that absurdity? That’s not reasonable. Straw man much, Vic?He actually meant the sky went dark just around the centurion?
And yet, the phrase doesn’t set distinct boundaries, does it? Rather, it is ambiguous, allowing for interpretation. Therefore, asserting that ἐπὶ πᾶσαν τὴν γῆν must mean “observed by Roman historians”, simply because it makes it easier to poke holes in that assertion… well, now I get your approach. It’s easier to defeat straw men than actual arguments.Em…that’s a bit of a stretch. it’s a little too convenient to personally interpret “over all the land” to be just visible where the Roman centurion was.
Ad hominem, now, Vic? I’m disappointed. But, since you asked: in Harrington’s Sacra Pagina treatment of Matthew, he states, “whether Matthew understood [the darkness] to extend over the Jerusalem area or the whole land of Israel or over the whole world is unclear. The portent stands in line with Amos 8:9… and Exodus 10:22.”Is this a respected, scholarly interpretation or just Gorgias’ interpretation?
No – I’m coming back with “we don’t know the extent of the darkness, so your assertion that it is apocalyptic because historians would have seen it” is unreasonable, since it requires a few presumptions that aren’t necessary to make. But hey – if you want to mischaracterize what I’ve said, in the hopes that it refutes my assertions… I guess you gotta do what you gotta do!Yeah, nice try. It’s like you claiming the sky went dark during the Olympics in Vancouver and I say well I read about how successful the games were but no one mentioned that bizarre, never before witnessed, terrifying phenomenon. Then you come back with, “well were they covering the events of that day?”
Then again, I’m not the one embracing logical fallacies…You’re grasping at straws a bit here.