Do you have questions about Catholic beliefs & Practices

[PJM]

You say that John 20:30-31 & 21:24-25 is also about teachings.I do not see that. Do you have other scripture to support your position?
Matt 5:48 Is in the middle of Him teaching about how to act in this life. Why would someone think this verse does not?

We’re used to recording everything, but the Apostles were not even quoted word for word; rather they relied on the promise of God. to do exactly what He promised. Send the Holy Spirit to remind them [infused knowledge] just like in Mt 16: 15-17 " [15] Jesus saith to them: But whom do you say that I am? [16]** Simon Peter answered and said: Thou art Christ, the Son of the living God.** [17] And Jesus answering, said to him: Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-Jona: because flesh and blood hath not revealed it to thee, but my Father who is in heaven.

I keep quoting Mt 16 in the hopes God will grant the grace you need to understand its total signifiance:shrug:

In 2 Corinthians 13:11 Paul says" BE perfect,BE of good comfort, BE of one mind, live in peace." Did Paul mean for them to accomplish three and take care of the other one after you die? Or is it more logical to think he expected them to accomplish all four in this life?

“[11] For the rest, brethren, rejoice, be perfect, take exhortation, be of one mind, have peace; and the God of peace and of love shall be with you. [12] Salute one another with a holy kiss. All the saints salute you. [13] The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, and the charity of God, and the communication of the Holy Ghost be with you all. Amen”

IF your asking if this passage is related to purgatory? ONLY in the sense that Paul admonishes them TO SEEK PERFECTION KNOWING FULL-WELL that “perfection” is the necessary state of a Soul in order to enter into heaven. Amen Verse 9 here seems to relate a similar message. I can see a correlation in verse 9:"For we rejoice, that we are weak, and you are strong. This also we pray for, your perfection.

In Philippians 3:15 Paul says “Let us therefore,as many as BE PERFECT,”. Was he praying to the saints? Or did he think (know) that some were perfect?

13" Brethren, I do not count myself to have apprehended. But one thing I do: forgetting the things that are behind, and stretching forth myself to those that are before,

14 I pursue towards the mark, for the prize of the supernal vocation, of God in Christ Jesus.

15 Let us, therefore, as many as are perfect, be thus minded: and if in any thing you be otherwise minded, this also God will reveal to you"

And here is what Paul is speaking about from Haydock’s Commentary

Ver. 13. “I do not count myself. That is, I do not suppose that vain security is sufficient to put my salvation out of doubt, and that Christ having died, nothing remains for me to do. No; I consider myself as a wrestler at the games, uncertain of success.”

I’m having great difficulty following your train of thought here:shrug:

God Bless you

Did you read the entire previously posted reply on multiple post?

God Bless,
Patrick

 

[PJM]

“Mother of God” (from the Hail Mary). God has no mother. She can’t hear you anyway.
I am not sure but wasn’t the rosary given by Mary?(not important just trying to refresh my memory).
I an not familiar with the “Gebirah” but I would have to see scripture supporting that.

REALLY: Does YOUR bible say that? Mine and the KING James don’t

King James Version
Luke 1:33-35

33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be , seeing I know not a man?
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Douay-Rhiems Catholic Bible
Luke 1:33-36

33 And of his kingdom there shall be no end.
34 And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?
35 And the angel answering, said to her: The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee.** And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God**

HELP US OUT HERE

JESUS IS GOD
MARY IS THE MOTHER OF JESUS

SO THEN HOW CAN MARY POSSIBLY NOT BE THE “MOTHER OF GOD”

Blessings,
Patrick

 

[PJM]

Doesn’t anyone have an answer to this well thought out question?

I hope others who are better at answering do so.
A quick answer for Mary being the queen of heaven is found in the fact that Jesus is king. The queen was always the mother not his wife. Since Jesus is king, that would make His mother queen. Mary is never separated from her son. All that she is, is due to her son. Mary always points the way to Him. Remember the last recorded words of Mary “Do whatever he tells you.”

It is better explained by EWTN please read as a starting point if you have more questions.

SURE; I DO

Please READ Post 296,97,98, & 99… There it is all spelled out for you:thumbsup

 

[PJM]

Elevating her to a position above any other believer in heaven. The rosary,the “Hail Mary”, Queen of Heaven.
Thanks for the spell check.

Friend Do yourself [and your Soul] a great service and read POST 296,97,98 & 99

It ought to remove your doubts:shrug:

 

[PJM]

Hi a,

I have to agree with you. Of course you cordially begin with "if’ she be elevated. Indeed we will all be equally "happy’ but not equally given authority and only one can be at His right side. Our rewards will be different. Yet we are all seated in heavenly places, even seated with Christ. And of course the saints you mentioned, even Mary, will definitely be placed where I can shine their boots/sandals.

So back to the ‘if’ on Mary being the highest. I have no problem with anyone seeing that as biblically or by inspired revelation as problematic. They would also have Catholic company thru out history to boot (well maybe more about the IC) . It is interpretive, not explicit. I mean her accolades or position is still in the process of being petitioned to be further infallibly defined by the CC.

Blessings

PLEASE READ MY POST #196,97,98, 99…The case I lay is very specific and VERY informative:thumbsup:

 

[Michael68]

“Mother of God” (from the Hail Mary). God has no mother. She can’t hear you anyway.
I am not sure but wasn’t the rosary given by Mary?(not important just trying to refresh my memory).
I an not familiar with the “Gebirah” but I would have to see scripture supporting that.

How do you know she can’t hear us? Did Jesus speak with Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration? If they can’t hear us, how is this possible?

 

[In_His_Grace]

REALLY: Does YOUR bible say that? Mine and the KING James don’t

King James Version
Luke 1:33-35

33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be , seeing I know not a man?
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Douay-Rhiems Catholic Bible
Luke 1:33-36

33 And of his kingdom there shall be no end.
34 And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?
35 And the angel answering, said to her: The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee.** And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God**

HELP US OUT HERE

JESUS IS GOD
MARY IS THE MOTHER OF JESUS

SO THEN HOW CAN MARY POSSIBLY NOT BE THE “MOTHER OF GOD”

Blessings,
Patrick

JESUS IS GOD
MARY IS THE MOTHER OF JESUS

SO THEN HOW CAN MARY POSSIBLY NOT BE THE “MOTHER OF GOD”

Absolutely, Mary is the Theotokos, always being clear in our mind that God the Son, second Person of the Most Holy Trinity, took His humanity from Mary, His divinity as God the Son, second Person of the Most Holy Trinity did not originate with Mary. So many non-Catholic Christians don’t understand this.

 

[blanchardman]

How do you know she can’t hear us? Did Jesus speak with Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration? If they can’t hear us, how is this possible?

You must have missed my earlier post on the transfiguration. I suggest that God opened a window to the future to show them as they will appear after the resurrection. That moment when all believers will receive their immortal bodies.

 

[Michael68]

You must have missed my earlier post on the transfiguration. I suggest that God opened a window to the future to show them as they will appear after the resurrection. That moment when all believers will receive their immortal bodies.

Ok, I have never heard that. Why were Moses and Elijah there discussing with Jesus His coming Passion if they are dead and unaware? This is what I’m trying to understand. You said Mary is dead and can’t hear us. The Transfiguration and the conversation suggest otherwise

 

[blanchardman]

Ok, I have never heard that. Why were Moses and Elijah there discussing with Jesus His coming Passion if they are dead and unaware? This is what I’m trying to understand. You said Mary is dead and can’t hear us. The Transfiguration and the conversation suggest otherwise

Where is it said they discussed His coming passion? I might have missed that.
Even if true the conversation could be looking back to that time.

 

[Tommy999]

Part 4 final part of reply to POST #274

I will however add a couple of additional points to ponder.

There is at least a small bit of human logic behind this front aimed at discrediting Catholicism. From the times of the reformation onward the Catholic Church has incessantly been an ever larger; always increasing is size and influence, “Bull’s-eye” on the target known as the “battle for Souls.” Just as Luther and Calvin understood the absolute need to “knock & knock-off” Catholics beliefs and practices; after 500 years this same practice has become the “call-to-arms of the Protestant community.

It seems quite reasonable and possible that because to the close proximately of various pagan religions were always close; and in times of captivity such as the times with Egypt and the Babylonian empire; where inter-marriage us forbidden but still a semi-common practice that through Judaism; and then later under Roman Rule; even in the time of Christ and the formation of His One true Church; that some degree of influence was inevitable.

What it did though was to give God the opportunity to take something we can consider as intrinsic-evils, [pagans rites and ceremonies] and make something very good of them: Catholic Feast days’. It’s puzzling to me that fellow Christian can at times, be so uncharitable.

God Bless you Tommy, Patrick

Thank you, Patrick, for the detailed explanations. I will take a look at the links you provided.

I listen sometimes to Al Kresta on his radio show on EWTN and he once said something to the effect of (paraphrasing), “I once had trouble with some of the Catholic beliefs on Mary, but then when I realized that they existed because of the perfect and divine nature of Jesus and who He was, then I no longer had a problem with them”.

I can appreciate that. I like Al Kresta. He possesses a lot of wisdom and maturity, and having been an evangelical pastor at one stage of his life, I think he understands where people like me are coming from in a personal way.

Thanks again.

 

[blanchardman]

Where is it said they discussed His coming passion? I might have missed that.
Even if true the conversation could be looking back to that time.

Nevermind I found it in Luke.

 

[adrift]

Nevermind I found it in Luke.

You see then that they are talking of a future event not one in the past?

 

[Michael68]

Nevermind I found it in Luke.

How would these men have known about the coming Passion if they are dead and unaware?

 

[Tommy999]

Absolutely, Mary is the Theotokos, always being clear in our mind that God the Son, second Person of the Most Holy Trinity, took His humanity from Mary, His divinity as God the Son, second Person of the Most Holy Trinity did not originate with Mary. So many non-Catholic Christians don’t understand this.

I still struggle a little with the Catholic belief that Mary was sinless. Although she was a wonderful woman with many ideal attributes, including humility, obedience (especially that one), a loving mother to her son who was also so brave that she risked her life to be with Him at the cross, I’m having trouble understanding why it is so important that she be sinless in order to bear our Lord.

Isn’t it the Catholic belief that the Virgin Mary was saved “in advance” by Jesus before He was even born? I’m trying to understand how it was possible for a human Mary to be made sinless before the Savior she bore was even born. Since she was human, why wouldn’t Romans 3:23 apply to her?

To my simple mind, it takes more mental and spiritual gymnastics to believe that Mary did not inherit a human nature (that included sin) than to believe that God supernaturally protected Jesus in the womb from the human sinful nature that Mary inherited from her parents, although she was arguably as holy/godly as any person who ever walked the earth and blessed above all women.

Please explain why it is so important that Mary be sinless. Couldn’t God have protected Jesus in the womb from that if God is all powerful, which He undoubtedly is?

 

[KathleenGee]

Hi Tommy,

We draw on the ‘sense’ of Sacred Scripture.

Christ came as atonement for sin. He could not be placed in a sinful human tabernacle…or a worse term I heard recently…a human incubator. That would deny that the Lord loves each one of us uniquely, we each one especially created.

Mary, to become the Mother of Christ, was in that much more need of salvation and redemption. God created her with free will. But He could not allow His Son to be conceived in sin. That is a contradiction.

Mary, full of grace, though given free will, was perfectly inclined to do God’s will. At her conception, her entire being was free yet choosing God and His will. And it is through Christ the Living Word of God, in which the universe was created. So by the saving action of the Living Word of God, Christ Himself was accepted by Mary through grace. Mary was especially protected by Original Sin, although her parents could have passed on original sin to her.

Remember, it took the Church 1800 years to finally accept the dogma of the Immaculate Conception. Thomas Aquinas did not believe in the Immaculate Conception because he thought it detracted from Christ. Yet if Thomas knew of DNA and that the child is complete and free, then most likely with such scientific knowledge, Aquinas would have accepted this dogma of the Immaculate Conception.

You may want to read up Duns Scotus, Franciscan, in how he counter argued Thomas Aquinas regarding this dogma so many hundreds of years prior.

In the end, this dogma requires an act of faith. When I was growing up the one I had trouble with was Mary’s assumption into heaven. While in my early 30’s, I began to read Catholic asceticism…the union with God through some drs of the church, and when studying the purgative, illuminate and unitive way of a soul, then I began to understand Mary’s assumption, her path different from ours because she did not sin.

 

[adrift]

Since she was human, why wouldn’t Romans 3:23 apply to her?

?

You refer to 23 for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
I have questions for you do you take this to mean there are not exceptions?
No exceptions are mentioned yet we know Jesus never sinned but it wasn’t deemed necessary to state it.
Would there be others? What about children? The mental handicapped? Would not these be exceptions too? Yet they too are not mentioned.
It wasn’t necessary in my view that she would be sinless but she was. It is fitting that the mother of Jesus be so.

 

[Michael68]

Was Eve created with or without sin?

 

[benhur]

How would these men have known about the coming Passion if they are dead and unaware?

So was Peter’s reaction wrong to build an altar at the Transfiguration ? Didn’t he realize that he could have conversations with saints on the "other side’’ ? You would usually only commemorate a singular event. The best one can say is that Peter wanted to commemorate realization that this conversation, though not visual, can happen at will. I liken this to Saul at Endor and God allowing Samuel (?) to return .It is a singular event allowed by God. No one ever says Elijah is dead for he was "taken "up, and Jude alludes that Moses body was not corrupted. The Lord was to have buried him, secretly. Other OT saints were supposedly in paradise, unlike those transfigured. Not sure how much they (Paradise saints) knew of what was going on,and the Lord did descend and “preach” explain. Not sure if Moses and Elijah had 100% foreknowledge because of heavenly conversation with Christ before His incarnation, or due to this conversation. Not a big deal. Saints today are all in heaven with the Lord, and I imagine are not ignorant of what is gonna happen. Certainly they know more than they did on earth, though no one knows the time, in fact the saints beg for it (Second Coming) to quickly transpire.

I guess what I am trying to say is that if the saints (Mary) can be heard from by us, and vice versa, it would be by a Divine allowance, like at Endor or Transfiguration, on specific occasions, otherwise one would have to show/believe that there is a new testament nature between all saints, communication wise, with no 'chasm" between on Earth or Heaven/Purgatory. At best one could put forth the explanation of the gift of Knowledge, thru the Holy Spirit, as can occur here on earth, where the Spirit can lead one to intercede on behalf of a specific need somewhere else, unseen to us.

Blessings

 

[benhur]

]I thought I made the point that the title Mother of God was about Jesus but it doesn’t diminish the fact that she is the Mother of God.

Right We agree. But…did the early church capitalize the ‘m’ in mother or would they have if their alphabet allowed ?

I am not following you. What is beyond? What was not intended?

Fair question. I think . Mary as virgin is the mother of Jesus, who was both God and Man. Now was Mary to be further elevated to being ever virgin, or even without sin from inception, and further to be assumed bodily, or to sit at the right hand of the Son, or to be a Queen, or to be co-redemptrix, mediatrix, and advocate ? Did Nicea or Theotokos framers, declare any of these ?

Blessings