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In_His_Grace
Guest
I’m not Catholic so I’ll leave it to the Catholics here to answer your questions. Personally, I don’t have a problem with many of the Catholic beliefs and practices surrounding Mary. I do however take issue with the fact that the Catholic Church declared some of their doctrines regarding Mary as dogma, infallible doctrine, divinely and formally revealed by God as a necessary truth for salvation.I still struggle a little with the Catholic belief that Mary was sinless. Although she was a wonderful woman with many ideal attributes, including humility, obedience (especially that one), a loving mother to her son who was also so brave that she risked her life to be with Him at the cross, I’m having trouble understanding why it is so important that she be sinless in order to bear our Lord.
Isn’t it the Catholic belief that the Virgin Mary was saved “in advance” by Jesus before He was even born? I’m trying to understand how it was possible for a human Mary to be made sinless before the Savior she bore was even born. Since she was human, why wouldn’t Romans 3:23 apply to her?
To my simple mind, it takes more mental and spiritual gymnastics to believe that Mary did not inherit a human nature (that included sin) than to believe that God supernaturally protected Jesus in the womb from the human sinful nature that Mary inherited from her parents, although she was arguably as holy/godly as any person who ever walked the earth and blessed above all women.
Please explain why it is so important that Mary be sinless. Couldn’t God have protected Jesus in the womb from that if God is all powerful, which He undoubtedly is?