Do you support the death penalty?

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I generally oppose the death penalty for fiscal reasons, but I think it can and should be meted out with restraint in unusual circumstances. It is right to kill an armed intruder in your home who refuses to flee, and it is right to execute those who pose a habitual threat to life around them, e.g. unrepentant murderers who continue to kill even after incarceration, or murderers who escape and kill again during their run from the law.
 
No
all human’s lives belong to God. He’s the one who can decide whether to take or to give a life.
i prefer to send people with big crimes to jail for the rest of their lives rather than death penalty
👍
 
No, the “Church” has not said this, JPII(?) said it. Personal opinions even of popes do not become Church doctrine merely because they express them.
Pope Innocent I and Augustine were contemporaries; their lives overlapped for decades. Innocent was pope for seventeen years while Augustine was a bishop. Nor is the opposition of the Fathers as unequivocal as you claim:

*So that, when one fails into any incurable evil, – when taken possession of, for example, by wrong or covetousness, – it will be for his good if he is put to death. *(Clement of Alexandria, c 200)
You have no evidence to support this assertion. In fact, all of the arguments made in support of capital punishment by the Church (as opposed to the personal opinions of some of the Fathers) are based on scripture and had nothing whatever to do with the practicalities of the time, and it is no small thing to simply dismiss Augustine as if his opinion was irrelevant.

Ender
Well, you know, Augustine’s opinion was fallible. :eek: Personal opinions of people, even if they are people who became saints (like Augustine) do not become Church doctrine merely because they express them. As for your quote by Clement, I question how he knew to decide “when one fails into any incurable evil.” I have no idea what that quote even means. What is “wrong?” What is “covetousness?” It sounds like Clement thought everyone should be put to death for any sin, even if that sin was venial. It almost sounds like blood atonement. Would you care to clarify?
 
Let’s see how this distinction applies to another moral question. We should agree over the general moral rule that one should not vote for a pro-abortion candidate. But over the application of that rule to the real world, according to your distinction between moral and prudential, we may legitimately hold different positions over who to vote for in a specific example. And while at least one of will be mistaken, neither of us behaves immorally in our voting because there is no knowable right or wrong answer over who to vote for in any given real-world election. Do I have that right now?
No. If the moral rule is that one may not vote for a pro-abortion candidate then… one may not vote for a person known to support abortion. In your example we can know whether a person meets the criterion the rule addresses. What I am talking about is (e.g) the rule to feed the poor. How we decide to do that is left to each of us to determine and you can argue that increasing the minimum wage would help the poor by giving them more money and I can argue that it will hurt the poor by eliminating their jobs and, even though our positions are exactly opposite, neither position is immoral. Protecting the public is like helping the poor: deciding how to accomplish those goals is an educated guess. It is not doctrine and explains why Cardinal Ratzinger could say:* “There may be a legitimate diversity of opinion even among Catholics about waging war and applying the death penalty”*
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Ender
 
You’re saying that for all of the Church’s 2,000 year history she has taught that executing a murderer is not an affront to his dignity. But now she is teaching that it is. Do I have that right?
Yes.
Current Church teaching regarding the death penalty reflects a greater understanding of the dignity and sanctity of every human being.
This is an assertion with no evidence to support it.
the death penalty, in the situation most “modern” countries are in now does not treat human beings with the respect they should be given by virtue of their being human beings, created by a loving God in His image.
Now it’s my turn to agree with you - sort of. I believe this is the reason JPII opposed capital punishment, because modern societies have become insensitive to the dignity of human beings. With abortion and euthanasia rampant and a disastrous loss of faith, the value of a human life has been greatly diminished. I believe JPII felt that executions would simply fuel the overall disrespect for man’s humanity. What he opposed was an execution’s perceived affront to human dignity.
I can see a glaring problem with what I’ve written: if the Church has always taught that human beings should always be treated with dignity and respect, this should hold true for murderers and for the innocent people who need to be protected. I guess one could say that executing murderers would be necessary even if it was an affront to their dignity but it’s my understanding that an evil means can never be used, even if it achieves a good end. So why would the Church ever teach that executing a murderer is appropriate?
Bingo. If an execution is an affront to human dignity then it can never be used, but the Church admits that it can be used ergo … it cannot be an affront. This problem is resolved, however, if my explanation of JPII’s position is correct. If the death penalty is only a perceived affront then it can morally be used in those cases where practicality makes it necessary.
I know there is no *ex cathedra *statement regarding the death penalty. Has the Church ever taught infallibly that executing a murderer is not an affront to his dignity, is good, is necessary?
Not specifically, but they have taught that such punishment is legitimate and that can only mean that it is not contrary to man’s dignity - and I believe this to be an infallible teaching by the definition given in Lumen Gentium (#25).

The infallibility promised to the Church resides also in the body of Bishops, when that body exercises the supreme magisterium with the successor of Peter. To these definitions the assent of the Church can never be wanting, on account of the activity of that same Holy Spirit, by which the whole flock of Christ is preserved and progresses in unity of faith.(44)*
But when either the Roman Pontiff or the Body of Bishops together with him defines a judgment, they pronounce it in accordance with Revelation itself, which all are obliged to abide by and be in conformity with, that is, the Revelation which as written or orally handed down is transmitted in its entirety through the legitimate succession of bishops and especially in care of the Roman Pontiff himself, and which under the guiding light of the Spirit of truth is religiously preserved and faithfully expounded in the Church.(45)*
*
** Both Scripture and long Christian tradition acknowledge the legitimacy of capital punishment under certain circumstances. The Church cannot repudiate that without repudiating her own identity.* (Archbishop Chaput)

Ender
 
Well, you know, Augustine’s opinion was fallible. Personal opinions of people, even if they are people who became saints (like Augustine) do not become Church doctrine merely because they express them.
True, but in this case what he expressed was in fact Church doctrine.
As for your quote by Clement, I question how he knew to decide “when one fails into any incurable evil.” I have no idea what that quote even means. What is “wrong?” What is “covetousness?” It sounds like Clement thought everyone should be put to death for any sin, even if that sin was venial. It almost sounds like blood atonement. Would you care to clarify?
The point of the quote was to rebut the claim Vouthon made that the Early Fathers “unequivocally opposed capital punishment.” Whatever Clement meant by his comment it is quite clear that he had no moral objection to its use.

Ender
 
No. If the moral rule is that one may not vote for a pro-abortion candidate then… one may not vote for a person known to support abortion. In your example we can know whether a person meets the criterion the rule addresses. What I am talking about is (e.g) the rule to feed the poor. How we decide to do that is left to each of us to determine and you can argue that increasing the minimum wage would help the poor by giving them more money and I can argue that it will hurt the poor by eliminating their jobs and, even though our positions are exactly opposite, neither position is immoral. Protecting the public is like helping the poor: deciding how to accomplish those goals is an educated guess. It is not doctrine and explains why Cardinal Ratzinger could say:* “There may be a legitimate diversity of opinion even among Catholics about waging war and applying the death penalty”*
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Ender
Exactly the point that I was going to make, Ender, regarding this post. Every Catholic is required to believe that we must help the poor, yet the way to do so is up for debate. So I agree that the analogy to voting for a pro-abortion candidate is not on the same par, because of the other variables.

However, where most of us differ from you is that you constantly maintain that the death penalty is, by default, a required punishment, unless prudential judgment deems it more harmful to the common good.

It seems that your error is that you hold the punishment of death for a murderer to be just as much of a requirement as our mandate to help the poor. You then filter it down from there to say that the application of the death penalty is just as much of a prudential judgment as how to assist the poor. This is not at all what the Catholic Church teaches. Rather, she teaches that the death penalty is not to be deemed as always wrong. That’s a far cry from making it the necessary punitive response to crime.
 
I don’t see how you can say the church supports the death penalty from this excerpt from the Catholic Catechism. Pope John Paull II talked Governor Carnahan of Missouri out of executing a criminal when the Pope came to Missouri back around the 1990 time frame.
JPII opposed the use of capital punishment by modern societies except in very unusual circumstances. That is not the same thing as saying Church doctrine forbids its use with virtually no exceptions. The Church says it is moral to use it. JPII believed that in most cases (today) it did more harm than good; the former is doctrine, the latter is prudential opinion.

I note that you started your citation of the Catechism at section 2263 - would you care to comment on section 2260?

Ender
 
Exactly the point that I was going to make, Ender, regarding this post. Every Catholic is required to believe that we must help the poor, yet the way to do so is up for debate. So I agree that the analogy to voting for a pro-abortion candidate is not on the same par, because of the other variables.

However, where most of us differ from you is that you constantly maintain that the death penalty is, by default, a required punishment, unless prudential judgment deems it more harmful to the common good.

It seems that your error is that you hold the punishment of death for a murderer to be just as much of a requirement as our mandate to help the poor. You then filter it down from there to say that the application of the death penalty is just as much of a prudential judgment as how to assist the poor. This is not at all what the Catholic Church teaches. Rather, she teaches that the death penalty is not to be deemed as always wrong. That’s a far cry from making it the necessary punitive response to crime.
Thank you. This is the problem I have with Ender’s comments. I agree that the Church teaches that the death penalty can be used. I don’t think there is anyone in this thread who has disagreed with that. But there is a big difference between “may be used in some cases” and “should be used in all cases.”
 
True, but in this case what he expressed was in fact Church doctrine.
The point of the quote was to rebut the claim Vouthon made that the Early Fathers “unequivocally opposed capital punishment.” Whatever Clement meant by his comment it is quite clear that he had no moral objection to its use.

Ender
From the quote you have provided it seems, at least to me, that Clement had no problem with executing anyone who committed *any *sin. So Clement, according to the quote you provided, evidently would have had no problem with being executed himself for any sin *he * committed. :eek: As that is such an anti-Catholic sentiment I submit that the quote has either been taken out of context or that its usefulness is non-existent when used to defend the position regarding capital punishment by the Early Fathers. 🤷

Do you have any other quotes to rebut the claim made by Vouthon?
 
From the quote you have provided it seems, at least to me, that Clement had no problem with executing anyone who committed *any *sin.
This is not an argument. You have simply described a Father of the Church as being un-Christian and dismissed him. Even you should recognize this as being over the top.
I submit that the quote has either been taken out of context or that its usefulness is non-existent when used to defend the position regarding capital punishment by the Early Fathers.
Look it up yourself if you think it’s been taken out of context, and your total mischaracterization of it means nothing in addressing his statement.
earlychristianwritings.com/text/clement-stromata-book1.html
Do you have any other quotes to rebut the claim made by Vouthon?
Well I don’t know. Vouthon has dismissed Augustine and Pope Innocent I and now you have dismissed Clement. I’m seeing a pattern here, nonetheless we can look at this comment from Athanasius:

What then do such men deserve, but to be called Arians, and to share the punishment of the Arians? For they were not afraid of God, who says, ‘Remove not the eternal boundaries which thy fathers placed,’ and ‘He that speaketh against father or mother, let him die the death:’ (Ad Afros Epistola Synodica)

Inasmuch as Athanasius believed that it was God himself who commanded that “He that speaketh against father or mother, let him die” it seems reasonably clear that he would not dispute the punishment, and I think it is safe to say that this next statement shows he believed some actions deserve the punishment of death:

All prove that they are but men at former times, and not even good men. For, to mention a few instances out of many to avoid prolixity, who that saw his lawless and corrupt conduct toward Semele, Leda, Alcmene, Artemis, Leto, Maia, Europe, Danae, and Antiope, or that saw what he ventured to take in hand with regard to his own sister, in having the same woman as wife and sister, would not scorn him and pronounce him worthy of death? (Two Books Against the Heathen, Bk I, #12)

Ender
 
This is not an argument. You have simply described a Father of the Church as being un-Christian and dismissed him. Even you should recognize this as being over the top.
I did no such thing. My remarks were made about the quote you provided - not about Clement personally. In fact, I did my best to defend him by stating that the quote may have been taken out of context.
Look it up yourself if you think it’s been taken out of context, and your total mischaracterization of it means nothing in addressing his statement.
See? It’s the quote with which I am having problems.
earlychristianwritings.com/text/clement-stromata-book1.html
Well I don’t know. Vouthon has dismissed Augustine and Pope Innocent I and now you have dismissed Clement. I’m seeing a pattern here, nonetheless we can look at this comment from Athanasius:
What then do such men deserve, but to be called Arians, and to share the punishment of the Arians? For they were not afraid of God, who says, ‘Remove not the eternal boundaries which thy fathers placed,’ and ‘He that speaketh against father or mother, let him die the death:’ (Ad Afros Epistola Synodica)
Inasmuch as Athanasius believed that it was God himself who commanded that “He that speaketh against father or mother, let him die” it seems reasonably clear that he would not dispute the punishment, and I think it is safe to say that this next statement shows he believed some actions deserve the punishment of death:
All prove that they are but men at former times, and not even good men. For, to mention a few instances out of many to avoid prolixity, who that saw his lawless and corrupt conduct toward Semele, Leda, Alcmene, Artemis, Leto, Maia, Europe, Danae, and Antiope, or that saw what he ventured to take in hand with regard to his own sister, in having the same woman as wife and sister, would not scorn him and pronounce him worthy of death? (Two Books Against the Heathen, Bk I, #12)
I DID NOT DISMISS CLEMENT! It is the *QUOTE * you provided! :mad: Did you read it carefully? What does it say to you? I’ve already written what it says to me and I am not happy with it at all. In fact, I am so unhappy that I will have to reflect on the quote you have now provided later. I thought we had made some headway and I have been working on a response to a post in which I received the impression that we were coming to an understanding. But it’s long and it’s complicated (at least to me) and I wanted to make sure that it is the best I can do before I post it. Right now I’m frustrated and angry. I hate to be told I have done things that I have not done!
:mad::mad::mad:
 
OK, this is NOT the best I can do but it will have to do for now.
Yes.
This is an assertion with no evidence to support it.
That is why I made the following statement:

“What I’m writing now is not backed by any Church teaching that I know of except that part of it is based on the CCC. Most of what I’m writing now is composed of my own thoughts. Please bear with me. I never want to claim the Church teaches anything unless I am absolutely sure she does so I’m not making that claim here.”
Now it’s my turn to agree with you - sort of. I believe this is the reason JPII opposed capital punishment, because modern societies have become insensitive to the dignity of human beings. With abortion and euthanasia rampant and a disastrous loss of faith, the value of a human life has been greatly diminished. I believe JPII felt that executions would simply fuel the overall disrespect for man’s humanity. What he opposed was an execution’s perceived affront to human dignity.
Do you have anything more than your thoughts to back up this possibility? I’m thinking about Vlad the Impaler and some other nasty people and wondering if the respect for human dignity has really changed as you say. This is only my opinion but so many people died in such horrible ways during the past 2,000 years that I wonder if we are actually moving in the right direction. Of course there is that abortion problem but I also wonder if any society in the past 2,000 years actually believed the unborn were people and entitled to dignity and life. There is also slavery, which most countries have made illegal (that isn’t to say it doesn’t exist). It just seems to me that we (or perhaps some of us) are becoming more aware of human dignity and that is why we fight so hard to end abortion, slavery, hunger, racism - which are all affronts to human dignity. This can get complicated very quickly because we may be slipping back into our old ways with the acceptance of contraception and the constant struggle to stop abortion and those other things I listed. I could probably write a tome here and I’m already above the maximum for a post.
Bingo. If an execution is an affront to human dignity then it can never be used, but the Church admits that it can be used ergo … it cannot be an affront. This problem is resolved, however, if my explanation of JPII’s position is correct. If the death penalty is only a perceived affront then it can morally be used in those cases where practicality makes it necessary.
“A perceived affront?” Now I’m confused about your position (again). Would you please explain a bit more about this?

There is another way execution could be an affront to human dignity and it might fit with Church teaching. I think it is possible that the teaching would be that execution is an affront to human dignity *when there is another way to keep the innocent safe *. During most of the Church’s history there was no way to keep the innocent safe unless the guilty was executed. I’m not a historian but it’s my impression that, during most of the last two thousand years, when someone was found guilty of a grievous act, that person was executed. If that is true then the Church would not need to specify what might occur at a later date; that sometime in the future it would be possible to keep the innocent safe without executions. Imagine the Church, two thousand years ago, teaching that in-vitro fertilization is wrong. There was no such thing back then so why would the Church teach that it is wrong? It could be the same with capital punishment. The Church rarely teaches about what might happen in the future.
I’m not saying that is what happened. I’m not saying this is or was Church teaching. I’m merely throwing this out for what good it might do. I’m thinking out loud.

-----This was supposed to be continued in next post but my draft was deleted (thank you, computer) and now it’s gone and I really don’t feel like trying to write it again - not now.-----
 
No. If the moral rule is that one may not vote for a pro-abortion candidate then… one may not vote for a person known to support abortion. In your example we can know whether a person meets the criterion the rule addresses. What I am talking about is (e.g) the rule to feed the poor. How we decide to do that is left to each of us to determine and you can argue that increasing the minimum wage would help the poor by giving them more money and I can argue that it will hurt the poor by eliminating their jobs and, even though our positions are exactly opposite, neither position is immoral. Protecting the public is like helping the poor: deciding how to accomplish those goals is an educated guess. It is not doctrine and explains why Cardinal Ratzinger could say:* “There may be a legitimate diversity of opinion even among Catholics about waging war and applying the death penalty”*
.
Ender
Looking at the examples you have cited, we see that the moral rule to help the poor is a moral rule, yet the decision as to exactly how to do that is what you call a prudential judgment. Then I gave the example of the moral rule of opposing abortion as something that falls under your definition of a moral rule, and then I claimed that the decision of exactly how to oppose abortion (whether or not to vote for a candidate who is not opposed to abortion) was a prudential decision. To this you objected saying that in my example one should know with certainty whether a candidate supports abortion, and therefore it was not a prudential decision.

Let me explore your objection by applying it to the example you gave of the moral rule to help the poor. Suppose there is a billionaire who has decided that for him the amount he should give to all charities combined is $0. He justifies this decision by claiming that his taxes help the poor and he pays a lot of taxes. Is he making a prudential decision or is he violating a moral rule?

An objective observer would say that he is clearly rationalizing a selfish position and is violating the moral rule of charity. In other words, the judgment should be obvious. This is similar to your analysis of my “voting for a pro-abortion candidate” example, where you implied that the application of that moral rule was obvious, and therefore not prudential. Since you refused to call the voting decision prudential, then I suppose you would have to also say the decision of this billionaire to donate a total of $0 is also not prudential.

But now suppose we gradually start raising that donation from $0 to $30,000. By the time we get to $30,000 I’m sure you will say that the decision to donate that amount is prudential. Since $0 is not prudential and $30,000 for this billionaire is prudential, then there must be some point at which the decision becomes prudential just by adding $1. But this conclusion is very unsatisfying because it implies that the distinction between moral and prudential is one of quantity, not one of kind. And I think you would rather say that the distinction is one of kind rather than quantity. So how do you resolve this inconsistency?
 
However, where most of us differ from you is that you constantly maintain that the death penalty is, by default, a required punishment, unless prudential judgment deems it more harmful to the common good.
Yes, that’s pretty much my position.
It seems that your error is that you hold the punishment of death for a murderer to be just as much of a requirement as our mandate to help the poor.
Well, our obligation to justice is as great as our obligation to charity.
You then filter it down from there to say that the application of the death penalty is just as much of a prudential judgment as how to assist the poor.
No, I didn’t really say that; I don’t think the two situations are that comparable. Helping the poor involves entirely prudential decisions; determining whether capital punishment is appropriate … not so much. I’ll expand on this in another post.
This is not at all what the Catholic Church teaches. Rather, she teaches that the death penalty is not to be deemed as always wrong. That’s a far cry from making it the necessary punitive response to crime.
Let’s be more specific: it is not the appropriate response to “crime” in general but to murder in particular.

Ender
 
Do you have anything more than your thoughts to back up this possibility?
Yes, here is Cardinal Dulles’ comment on this point.

For the symbolism to be authentic, the society must believe in the existence of a transcendent order of justice, which the State has an obligation to protect. This has been true in the past, but in our day the State is generally viewed simply as an instrument of the will of the governed. In this modern perspective, the death penalty expresses not the divine judgment on objective evil but rather the collective anger of the group. ** The retributive goal of punishment is misconstrued as a self-assertive act of vengeance.* *
catholiceducation.org/articles/religion/re0461.html
“A perceived affront?” Now I’m confused about your position (again). Would you please explain a bit more about this?
If executing a person really is an offense against his dignity then it should be opposed in all circumstances. It would be intrinsically evil. Since we know that it is not intrinsically evil (the Church allows it today, at least theoretically) it cannot be contrary to man’s dignity so it would be valid to use capital punishment. That it is perceived to be an affront to his dignity does not make it one.
There is another way execution could be an affront to human dignity and it might fit with Church teaching. I think it is possible that the teaching would be that execution is an affront to human dignity when there is another way to keep the innocent safe.
I understand your thinking here but this would amount to calling a punishment that is cruel or too harsh an affront to man’s dignity, and I don’t think that’s a valid assessment. Besides, we know the Church accepts the death penalty as a just punishment or she would never accept it under any circumstance and the justness of a punishment is determined by the nature of the crime, not the circumstances surrounding the application of the punishment. There may well be prudential reasons not to apply capital punishment but there is no fundamental moral objection to it.
During most of the Church’s history there was no way to keep the innocent safe unless the guilty was executed.
I think this is one of the weakest arguments against capital punishment because it doesn’t address the position taken by the Church for nearly 2000 years. 2267 is incorrect in claiming that the tradition of the Church allowed capital punishment if it was necessary for protection. The Church never even raised that as a concern (although she certainly recognize it as a benefit). All of her arguments supporting the use of the death penalty were based on her understanding of retributive justice.

Ender
 
Looking at the examples you have cited, we see that the moral rule to help the poor is a moral rule, yet the decision as to exactly how to do that is what you call a prudential judgment.
Yes. And what I am saying about capital punishment is that what we are arguing about is the moral rule, not the application of the rule. That is, is it a moral rule that murderers should die for their crime? We may decide for practical reasons or peculiar circumstances to make an exception in certain cases, but the rule remains, just as the rule to help the poor remains unchanged even if one decides not to give money to a panhandler on the street.
An objective observer would say that he is clearly rationalizing a selfish position and is violating the moral rule of charity. In other words, the judgment should be obvious. This is similar to your analysis of my “voting for a pro-abortion candidate” example, where you implied that the application of that moral rule was obvious, and therefore not prudential. Since you refused to call the voting decision prudential, then I suppose you would have to also say the decision of this billionaire to donate a total of $0 is also not prudential.
The billionaire is clearly rationalizing a selfish position just as the person who votes for Nancy Pelosi is just as clearly rationalizing away her obvious support of abortion. Voting for Senator Casey of PA might have been valid; voting for Obama was not (based on the assumption that the moral rule prohibits voting for pro-abortion candidates).
But now suppose we gradually start raising that donation from $0 to $30,000. By the time we get to $30,000 I’m sure you will say that the decision to donate that amount is prudential. Since $0 is not prudential and $30,000 for this billionaire is prudential, then there must be some point at which the decision becomes prudential just by adding $1.
It is not necessary (nor is it even possible) to know the exact point where valid choices end and dishonest rationalization begins - that’s the prudential part of the judgment. It is possible, however, as you point out, to know that some positions are valid and others are invalid and not knowing where the former becomes the latter doesn’t change that. We may not know where in the middle of the Rio Grande the line is separating Mexico from the US, but we surely know that the land on one side is theirs and the land on the other side is ours.
But this conclusion is very unsatisfying because it implies that the distinction between moral and prudential is one of quantity, not one of kind. And I think you would rather say that the distinction is one of kind rather than quantity. So how do you resolve this inconsistency?
As I said, regarding capital punishment we are disagreeing over the rule, not its application, just as - regarding voting - the disagreement is over whether the rule prohibits supporting a pro-abortion candidate, not whether Candidate X falls into that category.

Ender
 
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