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Ender
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Start with what I actually said, which was not that we have no obligation to assent to the Catechism but that section 2267 contains prudential opinion - with which we do not have to assent. In this I do nothing more than agree with Karl Keating on this point:Permit me to quote from your earlier post: “The position expressed in the catechism is a prudential opinion; it is not doctrine and we have no obligation to assent to it.”
Since you make such bold statements such as “I reject this claim” and “we have no obligation to assent to” the Catechism, etc.,…
*Beyond that, it has included a prudential judgment (the only such one in the “Catechism” on any topic, so far as I am aware) that, by its nature, cannot be binding in conscience. *
They weren’t offering an authoritative opinion on the morality of capital punishment, they were simply citing the Church’s teaching on the matter … or do you think they didn’t understand it?… then why should I heed a lone statement by a national conference of bishops, which is WAY below the Catechism in terms of authority?
The Catechism says punishment has a primary objective. Cardinal Dulles lists the four valid objectives. So, pick one. Are you claiming it is rehabilitation?You continue to connect some supposed dots between the phrase “redress” and “retribution,” ignoring any other possible interpretation than your own. Again, read those posts and consider how rehabilitation might also be a way to “redress.”
Not equated. Retribution is demanded by justice; it is the means of achieving the end.Here we go again… retribution is certainly a PART of punishment. And we can also diverge into a discussion about justice compared to punishment, two words which you seem to falsely equate.
We speak of merit and demerit, in relation to retribution, rendered according to justice. Now, retribution according to justice is rendered to a man, by reason of his having done something to another’s advantage or hurt. (Aquinas)
It doesn’t. The punishment doesn’t have be the same as the crime but the severity of the punishment must be commensurate with the severity of the crime.why does retribution mean that the same act, to the same degree, be inflicted on the perpetrator?
- Punishment is proportionate to sin in point of severity, both in Divine and in human judgments.* (Aquinas)
Neither is accurate. There are four valid objectives as I have already said; retribution may be primary but it is not the sole objective.you seem to say that every crime MUST be met with punishment by civil authorities that is SOLELY for retribution, where retribution is satisfied only by turning the SAME incident back onto the offender.
In the case of 2267 the magisterium has exercised its prudential judgment and claimed that, in today’s society, capital punishment should not be used as it does more harm than good. That is a judgment call about the advisability of using capital punishment; it is not a moral condemnation.Paragraph 2267 indeed speaks about what civil authorities are to do. And if retribution were the sole (or even primary) purpose of punishment, then civil authorities should be instructed to carry that out first, and then take other purposes into consideration. However, since your interpretation of 2267 cannot mesh with your interpretation of punishment, ergo, the Magisterium of our Church must be wrong.
But … this is not my interpretation of punishment. It is the Church’s. I have not said anything that I cannot support with citations from Church documents.
Ender