C
ClamDigger
Guest
I haven’t been on here in a while, but I was thinking about this the other day, so I figured it could make for some interesting discussion.
Many Protestants argue against Marian doctrines (for example, the Assumption) on the basis that they aren’t explicitly stated in the Bible. Based on this, many of these Protestants even go a step further and affirm the opposite, saying that Mary is dead, which is also not in the Bible.
Concerning this view, my question to those Protestants is this:
Why is it acceptable to completely deny these doctrines because they aren’t explicitly set out in the Bible, when the opposite of the doctrines (e.g.- that Mary’s body is rotting somewhere in some unknown grave) isn’t explicitly stated in the Bible either? Wouldn’t it be wiser to just say that you don’t know whether the doctines are true or not, rather than affirming the opposite, on the “off-chance” that the doctines are true?
Many Protestants argue against Marian doctrines (for example, the Assumption) on the basis that they aren’t explicitly stated in the Bible. Based on this, many of these Protestants even go a step further and affirm the opposite, saying that Mary is dead, which is also not in the Bible.
Concerning this view, my question to those Protestants is this:
Why is it acceptable to completely deny these doctrines because they aren’t explicitly set out in the Bible, when the opposite of the doctrines (e.g.- that Mary’s body is rotting somewhere in some unknown grave) isn’t explicitly stated in the Bible either? Wouldn’t it be wiser to just say that you don’t know whether the doctines are true or not, rather than affirming the opposite, on the “off-chance” that the doctines are true?