P
PaxTecvm
Guest
Dear brethren:
I have a Lutheran friend who insists that no evidence exists that people are more sexually immoral are than they were 50 or 60 years ago - that the only difference is that people are more open now, about what they used to keep secret and what otherwise went undocumented.
How do I counter this?
A wikipedia article says the following:
*
There were, however, detrimental effects on the society because of this time period. Since the sexual revolution, out-of-wedlock births, sexually transmitted diseases, teen pregnancy, and divorce have all risen considerably. Since the 60s, marriage has declined by a 1/3 and divorce has doubled. During the 1960s there were only four big STDs, now there are twenty-four. Since the sexual revolution, children living in single-parent families has tripled.*
However, nothing in this paragraph is documented! Nothing but the last sentence!
Can anyone point me to secular documentation for any (preferably all) this information?
Thanks!
I have a Lutheran friend who insists that no evidence exists that people are more sexually immoral are than they were 50 or 60 years ago - that the only difference is that people are more open now, about what they used to keep secret and what otherwise went undocumented.
How do I counter this?
A wikipedia article says the following:
*
There were, however, detrimental effects on the society because of this time period. Since the sexual revolution, out-of-wedlock births, sexually transmitted diseases, teen pregnancy, and divorce have all risen considerably. Since the 60s, marriage has declined by a 1/3 and divorce has doubled. During the 1960s there were only four big STDs, now there are twenty-four. Since the sexual revolution, children living in single-parent families has tripled.*
However, nothing in this paragraph is documented! Nothing but the last sentence!
Can anyone point me to secular documentation for any (preferably all) this information?
Thanks!